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Exam Code: COG-642
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Cognos 10 BI Scorecard Developer)

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NO.1 What directory contains log files needed to troubleshoot problems importing data?
A. installation_location/logs/MetricStorelnstall
B. installation_location/logs/MetricMaintenance
C. installation_location/logs/MetricUpgradePackage
D. installation_location/logs/MetricStoreUpgrade
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which statement is true about staging tables?
A. Staging tables map to Data ManagerTables
B. Staging tables map to tab-delimited files
C. Staging tables map to tables in the data warehouse
D. Staging tables map to tables in the content store
Answer: B

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NO.3 A tab-delimited file with a cmo extension can be used to create what type of object?
A. Scorecards
B. Metric types
C. Calendar levels
D. Permissions
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which activities can only be performed by the Metric Store Administrator?
A. Set policies.
B. Create the root scorecard.
C. Run import and export options.
D. Add links to a CognosBI report.
Answer: C

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NO.5 What must be done to load the data successfully into Metric Studio using structured query language
(SQL) scripts?
A. Perform the task Recalculate metric store derived values after each script execution.
B. Perform the task Import data from files into staging area after each script execution
C. Structure the query language to map data from the relational database to the content store.
D. Structure the query language to map data from the relational database to the staging tables
Answer: D

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NO.6 How would the scorecard developer delete the Marketing scorecard and move its children under the
Corporate scorecard.?
A. In the user interface, drag the children to the Corporate scorecard and then delete the Marketing
scorecard.
B. In the user interface, mark the Marketing scorecard for deletion, drag the Corporate scorecard and run
re-calculate metrics derived values.
C. In the .cmo file, re-assign the parent to the children scorecard and then mark the Marketing scorecard
for deletion.
D. In the .cmdfile. re-assign the parent to the children scorecard and then mark the Marketing scorecard
for deletion.
Answer: C

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NO.7 An administrator attempted to transfer metric values from the staging area into the metric store.
However, not all of the metrics were populated with expected values. In which table can the administrator
locate the rejected rows for review, correction, and reloading?
A. KPI_VALUE_STAGE_REJECTS
B. OBJECT_STAGE_REJECTS
C. METRIC_TYPE_STAGE_REJECTS
D. OBJECT_NOTE_STAGE_REJECTS
Answer: A

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NO.8 A tab-delimited file with a cmm extension contains what type of objects?
A. Metrics
B. Metric types
C. Metric values
D. Import sources
Answer: B

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NO.9 A user needs to update target values ONLY for:
Americas Return quantity %
Americas Return quantity % Defective product
Americas Return quantity % Incomplete product
What minimum permissions MUST be applied on the objects for that user?
A. Write target values permissions to the Americas scorecard and read permissions to all ancestor
scorecards.
B. Write permissions to the three metrics and traverse permissions to all ancestor scorecards.
C. Write target values permissions to the three metrics and read permissions to all ancestor scorecards
D. Write permissions to the Americas scorecard and read permissions to all ancestor scorecards
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which tile extension must be used on the tab-delimited file that defines relationships between objects?
A. .cmo
B. .cmr
C. .cml
D. .cmm
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 000-163
Exam Name: IBM (Infrastructure Sales Leader V1)

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NO.1 The board of a large regional hospital has just approved awarding you the purchase order for a server
and storage virtualization project. You have been working for the last year to develop the solution and had
presented the final proposal to the CFO the previous month. The project is to begin within 45 days of
receipt of the P O. Which of the following would be the next logical step?
A. Review the payment milestones with the customer accounts payable department
B. Immediately begin reviewing resumes to hire additional technical staff in order to insure success of the
project
C. Schedule a meeting with the previously defined project manager and technical delivery teams leaders
that will be responsible for project
D. Meet with the customer's key decision makers over dinner within the next 30 days to review the
implementation plan
Answer: C

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NO.2 A customer executive is very interested in IBM's virtualization strategy and has asked you to articulate
the main theme. Which of the following defines IBM's virtualization strategy?
A. Specially priced combinations of IBM servers, storage and software designed for optimization in
specific industries
B. A group of IBM server products and middleware that allow service oriented architecture (SOA) across
platforms
C. It is a set of technologies and capabilities that span servers, storage, network, operating system and
higher-level, system-management functions
D. A set of policies and procedures for IT service level management to reduce system administration
through automation
Answer: C

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NO.3 When selling a complex virtualization solution to a client, IBM recommends performing what type of
review?
A. Technical and Delivery Assessment (TDA)
B. Review of Contracts and Plans (RCP)
C. Solutions Guarantee Review (SGR)
D. Solutions Pricing Review (SPR)
Answer: A

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NO.4 A customer is concerned about virtualization and fears managing a virtualized environment. Which of
the following is an answer to this objection?
A. Use Tivoli provisioning and monitoring software
B. Increased redundancy
C. Lower TCO
D. Use WebSphere Process Server
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which of the following are typically the top two benefits that customers anticipate from server
virtualization?
A. Increased utilization and lower cost
B. Lower software license costs and fewer applications
C. Lower utilization and higher availability
D. Increased utilization and application performance variability
Answer: D

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NO.6 A customer has workloads which have different peak demands at different times, and
overcommitted memory on a system with several partitions. The CIO has heard that the primary benefit of
Active Memory Sharing is maximizing overall memory utilization on the system and wants to include this
in plans to upgrade the system to POWER7. Which PowerVM edition supports Active Memory Sharing?
A. Expert Edition
B. Express Edition
C. Standard Edition
D. Enterprise Edition
Answer: D

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NO.7 A customer has five different departments with about 100 servers in each of those departments. The
customer recognizes the savings that will occur from virtualization and wants to complete the project
quickly and eliminate excess servers and storage as soon as possible. Which of the following is the most
logical approach to this project?
A. Virtualize servers with internal storage first
B. Virtualize the largest servers first
C. Virtualize the most significant applications first
D. Virtualize one department at a time
Answer: D

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NO.8 You are talking to the CEO of a large enterprise and he has asked, from a business point of view what
does virtualization provide? Which of the following best describes that business value to the CEO.?
A. Maximize utilization of business computing and storage assets, reduce time to set up new applications
B. Improve CPU utilization by replacing single windows servers with blades
C. Reduce network port counts with VLAN tagging
D. Consolidate storage resources into a set of tiered pool
Answer: A

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NO.9 A large medical company is planning a virtualization and consolidation project to replace one third of
their current servers. The servers unaffected include z10, Linux, and Windows. Which of the following is
the business value of a Virtualization Engine?
A. Customers have access to resources though web services using a resource model
B. Customers have a methodical approach to virtualization starting points and project expansion
consistently
C. Customers gather information about business resources associated with business service and the
relationship between these resources
D. Customers start with installing the VE Console followed by their choice of VE products
Answer: B

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NO.10 Identifying each customer's recovery and budget requirements is an important first step in a BR
engagement. The customer determined they have Recovery Time Objective of 2-6 hours. Which of the
following best address their BR requirements?
A. Continuous Availability, end to end automation
B. Backup / Restore
C. Rapid data recovery
D. Real time data and server replication
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 000-553
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Certified Specialist Netezza Performance Software v6.0)

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NO.1 Which statement is true regarding any database user?
A. The user has a table space defined.
B. The user can be assigned to more than one group.
C. The user must have a corresponding host account.
D. The user can be removed from the default PUBLIC group.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Click on the exhibit.
Given the following query:
SELECT * FROM TableA, TableB WHERE TableA.c_custkey = TableB.o_custkey;
What type of join processing will occur when the query is executed?
A. Collocation hash join processing
B. Distributed hash join processing
C. Broadcast sort merge join processing
D. Replication sort merge join processing
Answer: A

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NO.3 After performing a GROOM on a clustered base table, which statement is true?
A. The table is redistributed on the ORGANIZE ON clause.
B. The table is reorganized on the ORGANIZE ON clause.
C. The table is reorganized on the DISTRIBUTE ON clause.
D. The table is redistributed on the DISTRIBUTE ON clause.
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which statement about the TwinFin Groom feature is true?
A. GROOM TABLE requires space to make a complete copy of the table.
B. GROOM TABLE only operates on tables that include an ORGANIZE ON clause.
C. GROOM TABLE prevents nzload from adding data while GROOM is in progress.
D. GROOM TABLE allows UPDATE, DELETE, and INSERT operations to occur while GROOM is in
progress.
Answer: D

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NO.5 When are zonemaps initially created for a table?
A. nzbackup
B. nzreclaim
C. CREATE TABLE
D. ALTER TABLE ADD ZONEMAPS
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which two characteristics describe the materialized view on TwinFin. (Choose two.)
A. Materialized views can contain aggregates.
B. Materialized views can contain a HAVING clause.
C. Materialized views can contain a WHERE clause.
D. Materialized views can contain an ORDER BY clause.
E. Materialized views can reference only one base table in the FROM clause.
Answer: D,E

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NO.7 Which statement is true for database users and groups.?
A. All users must belong to admin group.
B. Creation of users and groups is not allowed.
C. Users and groups are local and tied to a particular database.
D. Users and groups are global and not tied to a particular database.
Answer: D

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NO.8 Why should you avoid using Boolean data types as a distribution key for a table ?
A. Table will not join.
B. Table will not broadcast.
C. Table is likely to be skewed.
D. Table is likely to be evenly spread across data slices.
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which two statistical data points are automatically updated when performing an INSERT on a table?
(Choose two.)
A. The number of rows in the table.
B. The column histogram statistics.
C. The number of NULLs in each column.
D. The number of unique values in each column.
E. The minimum and maximum column value information (excluding text columns).
Answer: A,E

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NO.10 Which clause CANNOT be used with a CREATE VIEW statement?
A. SUM ()
B. GROUP BY
C. ORDER BY
D. OUTER JOIN
Answer: C

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NO.11 When creating a table, you can specify a column constraint for each individual column of either "NULL"
or "NOT NULL". When column values are later evaluated within a query statement, which of these is true?
A. 0 is equal to null, the empty string ( '' ) is equal to null.
B. 0 is equal to null, the empty string ( '' ) is not equal to null.
C. 0 is not equal to null, the empty string ( '' ) is equal to null.
D. 0 is not equal to null, the empty string ( '' ) is not equal to null.
Answer: D

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NO.12 Using a date column as a distribution key may distribute rows evenly across dataslices, why is this a
poor choice of a distribution key?
A. Queries on the table will invoke compression.
B. Queries on date range may involve processing skew.
C. Queries on date range will utilize only host processing.
D. Queries on the table will invoke compression on the date columns.
Answer: B

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NO.13 Which CREATE DATABASE attributes are required?
A. The database name.
B. The database name and the redo log file name.
C. The database name and the table space name.
D. The database name and the temporary table space name.
Answer: A

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NO.14 Columns in a table may be zonemapped. How are those columns chosen?
A. They are automatically selected by the system.
B. They are based on the same columns as the table's distribution key.
C. They are added via the ALTER TABLE ADD INDEX(column_name) statement.
D. They are added via the ALTER TABLE ADD ZONEMAP(column_name) statement.
Answer: A

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NO.15 What is a characteristic of a column that is based on the TIMESTAMP datatype?
A. It includes a date portion.
B. It includes a timezone offset.
C. The value is reevaluated each time the row is selected.
D. The value is initially assigned when the row is first created.
Answer: A

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NO.16 What is the raw user data space available on a TwinFin 24?
A. 24TB
B. 48TB
C. 64TB
D. 100TB
Answer: C

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NO.17 What should be considered when you are asked to select the distribution key columns for a very large
fact table?
A. As many columns as possible.
B. Columns that contain many nulls.
C. Columns that contain few unique values.
D. Columns used to join to other large tables.
Answer: D

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NO.18 What is the maximum number of columns you can choose as organizing keys for clustered base table?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 8
Answer: C

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NO.19 .When working with sequences, which of the following statements will always be true?
A. One-up numbers are generated.
B. Integers (whole numbers) are generated.
C. The first value generated is the number 1.
D. The sequence number assigned will be unique across all tables and databases.
Answer: B

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NO.20 What is the TwinFin host Linux file that must be modified to adjust optimizer settings
permanently?
A. /nz/data/postgresql.conf
B. /nz/data/config/system.cfg
C. /nz/kit/sys/initTopology.cfg
D. /nz/kit/log/sysmgr/sysmgr.log
Answer: A

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Exam Code: LOT-922
Exam Name: IBM (Developing IBM Lotus Domino 8.5.2 Applications: Advanced XPage Design)

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NO.1 Frank is attempting to add some functionality to an existing XPage: ?The XPage has a Date Time
Picker edit box named "graduationDate" where users must enter their graduation date. ?Frank looks at
the HTML source of the XPage and sees that the edit box has the HTML attribute:
dojoType="ibm.xsp.widget.layout.DateTimeTextBoxContainer" ?Frank has added a combo box where
users should choose their type of Job, from the options "Intern", "Graduate" or "Experienced". ?Frank
wants to add an onchange listener to the combo box, that checks the value of the graduation date and
gives a browser alert popup dialog like "Intern and Graduate positions only available in the first 2 years
after graduation". ?Frank has looked at the HTML source of the XPage and sees that the Date Time
Picker edit box has a dojoType attribute. Which of the following code snippets should Frank use to
retrieve the graduation date before triggering the alert dialog:
A. var graduationDate = getComponent("graduationDate").getValue();
B. var graduationDate = XSP.getElementById("#{id:graduationDate}").value;
C. var graduationDate = dojo.byId("#{id:graduationDate}").value;
D. var graduationDate = dijit.byId("#{id:graduationDate}").getValue();
Answer: D

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NO.2 Jo wants to make a configurable list of countries available to the client side JavaScript of her XPage for
use in various different fields on the web page. What would be the most efficient approach?
A. Add an @DbColumn to a server side script library to look up the country list in each place it is required
B. Perform an AJAX request to get the country list from another XPage when it is required using
dojo.xhrGet
C. Use the Output Script control to create a global Client Side JavaScript object to reference when the list
is required
D. Add a @Decorum to a client side script library to look up the country list in each place it is required
Answer: C

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NO.3 Liz wants to make the user confirm their action when they try and delete a document from the
application using a delete button. The confirmation message needs to display the title of the document in
it. What is the best way to compute this message?
A. In the client side event of the delete button use the following code:
if (confirm("Are you sure you want to delete the document "
+
document1.getItemValueString('title')))
{
return true;
}else{
return false;
}
B. In the client side event of the delete button use the following code:
if (confirm("Are you sure you want to delete the document "
+
"#{javascript:document1.getItemValueString('title')}"))
{
return true;
}else{
return false;
}
C. In the server side event of the delete button use the following code:
if (confirm("Are you sure you want to delete the document "
+
document1.getItemValueString('title')))
{
return true;
}else{
return false;
}
D. In the server side event of the delete button use the following code:
if (confirm("Are you sure you want to delete the document "
+
"#{javascript:document1.getItemValueString('title')}")
{
return true;
}else{
return false;
}
Answer: B

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NO.4 Rick creates a Server-Side JavaScript library, and defines a few global variables at the beginning of the
library. The JavaScript in his XPage and in the JavaScript library modify those global
variables. The server the application runs on is heavily used, and the application settings are set to Keep
Pages on Disk for best scalability. When the application executes, what is likely to happen?
A. The application will perform as expected.
B. The application will generate an error because you can not declare global Server-Side
JavaScript variables
C. The application will run, but the values of the globally defined variables may be lost when the server's
JVM garbage collects variables, causing unexpected results.
D. The application will run, but every partial or full refresh will reset the values of the global
variables when it reloads the Server-Side JavaScript library.
Answer: C

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NO.5 Aaron has created an XPages application that has a couple of XPages to surface the same data to two
different application roles in two completely different user interfaces. Each role can manipulate parts of
the data, but in both cases, the data must adhere to the same business logic and rules. What would be
the best way for Aaron to implement the same business logic in each XPage.?
A. Create a common Client-Side JavaScript Library for the XPages to share that the user interface can
use to execute the business logic
B. Use a series of Custom Controls to hold the business logic and share them amongst the XPages
C. Create a common Server-Side JavaScript Library for the XPages to share that the user
interface can use to execute the business logic
D. The user interface and the business logic in an XPage can not easily be separated and must be
maintained in each XPage
Answer: C

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NO.6 John has a JavaScript function in a Client Side JavaScript library which he wrote to parse some JSON
data and loop through the resulting objects. If he wanted to perform the same task in Server Side
JavaScript what would be the most efficient action?
A. write a new function in Server Side JavaScript to perform the same task
B. copy the Client Side function into a Server Side JavaScript library, add the script library to his XPage
and call the function from his Server Side
JavaScript
C. add the Client Side JavaScript library to his XPage and call the function from his server side JavaScript
D. Server Side JavaScript does not work with JSON data
Answer: B

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NO.7 Ernie wants to add the Dojo theme "soria" to the other styling on his XPage. Which theme code will add
the appropriate class to the body tag of the outputted HTML?
A. <control>
<name>ViewRoot</name>
<property mode="override"
>
<name>styleClass</name>
<value>soria</value>
</property>
<control>
B. <control>
<name>ViewBody</name>
<property mode="override"
>
<name>styleClass</name>
<value>soria</value>
</property>
<control>
C. <control>
<name>ViewRoot</name>
<property mode="concat"
>
<name>styleClass</name>
<value>soria</value>
</property>
<control>
D. <control>
<name>ViewBody</name>
<property mode="concat"
>
<name>styleClass</name>
<value>soria</value>
</property>
<control>
Answer: C

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NO.8 Lydia wants to create a JSON string to represent an array with three objects. Each object has two
variables, vA and vB, set to different string values of "one", "two", "three", "four", "five", and "six". What is
the proper syntax for the JSON string?
A. [ { vA: 'one', vB: 'two' },{ vA: 'three', vB: 'four' },{ vA: 'five', vB: 'six' } ]
B. "[ { vA: 'one', vB: 'two' },{ vA: 'three', vB: 'four' },{ vA: 'five', vB: 'six' } ]"
C. "[ { vA: one, vB: two },{ vA: three, vB: four },{ vA: five, vB: six } ]"
D. new Array(new Object({ vA: 'one', vB: 'two' }), new Object({ vA: 'one', vB: 'two' }), new Object({
vA: 'one', vB: 'two' }));
Answer: B

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NO.9 Dominic wants to implement the open source CSS framework called Blueprint in his XPages application.
He does not want to include any other CSS framework resources which may exist on the Domino server.
What is the best way to include all of the required CSS files in the XPages in his application?
A. In each XPage in the application add the required CSS files to the Resources section
B. Create a new theme which extends webstandard and then add each Blueprint CSS file via a resource
definition
C. Create a new theme which extends oneui and then add each Blueprint CSS file via a resource
definition
D. Create a new theme which does not have an extension property and then add each Blueprint CSS file
via a resource definition
Answer: D

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NO.10 Elizabeth needs to parse the contents of a web page held on a remote server into an
applicationScope variable via the server side onclick event of a button using Server Side
JavaScript. How would she do this?
A. It is not possible to perform network operations from Server Side JavaScript
B. Create a new Java class to perform the operation in a Java Script Library and call it from the onclick
event of the button.
C. Create a new Java class to perform the operation in a Java Agent and call it from the onclick event of
the button.
D. Create a new Java class to perform the operation in the WebContent\WEB-INF\src folder via the
Package Explorer and call it from the onclick
event of the button.
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 000-M96
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Unica Enterprise Campaign Technical Mastery Test V1)

000-M96 (IBM Unica Enterprise Campaign Technical Mastery Test V1) Free Demo Download: http://www.it-tests.com/000-M96.html

NO.1 Which Unica Campaign process defines the criteria to locate a set or group, such as a list of customers,
from a customer's marketing data?
A.Select
B.Audience
C.Merge
D.Sample
Answer:A

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NO.2 Where does a customer obtain a software license key, which is required for Unica Campaign v8.2 or
lower?
A.By contacting admin@us.ibm.com.
B.By contacting the Unica license administrator.
C.By contacting campaignlicense@us.ibm.com.
D.By contacting Unica support.
Answer:D

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NO.3 What type of data table in Unica Campaign contains information that augments a base table; for
example, demographics, accounts belonging to a customer, order transactions belonging to a customer?
A.Base record table
B.Dimension table
C.General table
D.Active record table
Answer:B

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NO.4 In Unica Campaign, where do you navigate to access the Advanced Settings that allow you to manage
some Unica Campaign settings and server optimization features.?
A.Go to the Summary tab of the campaign.
B.Open the flowchart in Edit mode and select Options.
C.View the flowchart in View mode and select Run.
D.Open the flowchart in Edit mode and select Admin.
Answer:D

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NO.5 What is a recommended part of the planning process for a customer in order to install Unica Campaign?
A.Hardware and software environment and Unica hardware sizing parameters.
B.Create Campaigns
C.Install Cognos
D.Configure the Unica Marketing platform parameters.
Answer:A

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NO.6 When working with Unica Campaign Response History Administration, what is a key step before
beginning the work?
A.Configure response processes.
B.Define audience levels.
C.Configure table mappings.
D.Configure audience process.
Answer:B

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NO.7 What is a key tool to use when creating the database and schema for the Unica Campaign system
tables?
A.unica_actrg
B.Unica Campaign database information checklist.
C.unica_svradmin
D.Database native data loaders.
Answer:B

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NO.8 If you are using Unica Campaign with more than one partition, what must a customer do to configure
the IBM Cognos Reports Package?
A.The Reports Package does not support multiple partitions.
B.Configure once for all partitions.
C.Install Cognos on a separate server.
D.Configure for each partition.
Answer:A

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NO.9 What do you use in Unica Campaign to create a new variable for querying, segmenting, sorting,
calculating, or providing output to a table?
A.Derived Fields
B.Snapshot Process
C.Extract Process
D.Dimension Hierarchy
Answer:A

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NO.10 Which Unica Campaign object(s) has no naming restrictions, for instance, using special characters
like ? or >?
A.Audience levels not including audience level field names.
B.Custom attribute display names not including custom attribute internal names.
C.Offer templates
D.All of the above.
Answer:D

IBM   000-M96   000-M96

NO.11 What templates does a customer need to import if the Unica Marketing Platform and Unica Campaign
system tables databases are of the same database type?
A.None, the system automatically imports the template.
B.SQLServer template
C.Oracle template
D.DB2 template
Answer:A

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NO.12 For Unica Campaign, what prefix is used for system tables?
A.UARC_
B.DBO_
C.UA_
D.SYS_
Answer:C

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NO.13 What key concept in Unica Campaign provides a collection or set of one or more tasks, or processes,
that Unica Campaign executes to specify and select the desired target(s) of a customer's marketing
campaign and, optionally, assigns offers, outputs data and tracks responses?
A.Offer
B.Campaign
C.Flowchart
D.Session
Answer:C

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NO.14 When should a user regenerate a strategic segment in Unica Campaign?
A.Never
B.Daily
C.When datasource contents have changed.
D.Whenever a new campaign is created.
Answer:C

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NO.15 What utility tool should a customer use if they want to export an XML version of configuration settings
for backup, or to import the settings into a different installation of Unica Marketing Platform?
A.populateDb
B.configTool
C.partitionDb
D.unica_actrg
Answer:B

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Exam Code: 000-539
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Tivoli Storage Manager V6.2 Administration )

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NO.1 What is supported and eligible for export from one IBM Tivoli Storage Manager V6.2 (TSM) server to
another?
A. network attached storage nodes
B. data from a Centera device class
C. data from a server with retention protection enabled
D. file data from a TSM V6.2 server to TSM V6.1 server storage
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which task menu is used when configuring IBM Tivoli Storage Manager V6.2 Backup-Archive client
preferences in the Backup-Archive graphical user interface?
A. Edit
B. Utilities
C. Actions
D. Options
Answer: B

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NO.3 A network data management protocol (NDMP) network attached storage device must be backed to
IBM Tivoli Storage Manager V6.2 (TSM). Which interfaces are supported to perform this function?
A. TSM Client Scheduler, Backup-Archive command line client, administrative command line client
B. TSM Backup-Archive Web client, NDMP command line client, administrative command line client
C. TSM Backup-Archive Web client, Backup-Archive command line client, administrative command line
client
D. TSM NDMP graphical user interface, Backup-Archive command line client, administrative command
line client
Answer: C

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NO.4 What are two requirements for a properly working Web client? (Choose two.)
A. a supported Web server
B. an administrator with at least node owner authority
C. the client acceptor daemon service dsmcad is set up and running
D. the passwordacces option in the client option file is set to prompt
E. an IBM Tivoli Storage Manager V6.2 server with an extended edition license
Answer: B,C

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NO.5 Which option must be set to perform IBM Tivoli Storage Manager V6.2 database backups to certain
device classes?
A. set dbbackup
B. set dbrecovery
C. set dbdevclass
D. set drmdbbackupexpiredays
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which privilege class is needed to issue administrator commands that only affect specific storage
pools?
A. Restricted Policy privilege
B. Restricted Storage privilege
C. Unrestricted Policy privilege
D. Unrestricted Storage privilege
Answer: B

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NO.7 How does an IBM Tivoli Storage Manager V6.2 administrator create a separate place for backing up a
client's data that must have the most current versions of files for a single server?
A. define a full backup pool
B. define a file device class
C. define an active data pool
D. define a disk storage pool
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which privilege class is required to create the Disaster Recovery Plan?
A. System
B. Security
C. Operator
D. Recovery
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which configuration file must be edited to enable journal backups in AIX?
A. dsm.opt
B. dsm.sys
C. journal.ini
D. tsmjbbd.ini
Answer: D

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NO.10 How is an Oracle database backed up consistently with IBM Tivoli Storage Manager V6.2 (TSM) when
Oracle Recovery Manager (RMAN) is not available?
A. shut down the database then select the TSM API
B. leave the database open and use the TSM Backup-Archive client
C. shut down the database then use the TSM Backup-Archive client
D. backup the database using Oracle tools and then use TSM Data Protector for Oracle
Answer: C

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NO.11 Which option allows users to specify how directory structures are handled when performing a restore
to a new location?
A. restoredir
B. preservedir
C. restorepath
D. preservepath
Answer: D

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NO.12 While attempting to configure a network attached storage (NAS) backup, an IBM Storage Manager
V6.2 (TSM) administrator is unable to access the Web client graphical user interface to initiate a network
data management protocol backup. What are two reasons? (Choose two.)
A. authentication=on is not set on the TSM server
B. insufficient access rights to traverse the NAS file system
C. tocdestination include.nas.fs is not set in dsm.opt
D. tocdestination include.nas.fs is not set in ndmp.opt
E. passwordaccess=generate is not set on the Backup-Archive client
Answer: A,B

IBM   000-539   000-539

NO.13 What are two optional recovery log types when implementing an IBM Tivoli Storage Manager V6.2
server? (Choose two.)
A. Active log
B. Active log mirror
C. Archive Mirror log
D. Active Fail-over log
E. Archive Fail-over log
Answer: B,E

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NO.14 What is the function of the IBM Tivoli Storage Manager V6.2 (TSM) client scheduler.?
A. It enables security for the scheduling service.
B. It enables tasks to be performed automatically.
C. It enables the client to control access to the TSM server.
D. It enables backup scheduling on AIX or Linux clients only.
Answer: B

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NO.15 How is a management class MC associated with a file or file group in the client options file?
A. update <file name> MC
B. include <file name> MC
C. associate <file name> MC
D. set policy <file name> MC
Answer: B

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NO.16 What must be defined for data deduplication?
A. active data pool
B. ProtecTIER device
C. client staging area
D. storage pool for deduplication
Answer: D

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NO.17 Which command displays the Disaster Recovery Manager (DRM) Plan parameters?
A. Show DRMPLAN
B. Query DRMSTATUS
C. Query Recoveryplan
D. Query DRMRECOVERYPLAN
Answer: B

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NO.18 What ensures that VMware full and incremental backups do not backup subfile data relating to the
virtual machine node being protected?
A. exclude.subfile *:\..\*
B. vmbacknodelete YES
C. exclude.dir subfile=no
D. include.subfile g:\tsm\vmbackup\...\*
Answer: A

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NO.19 What type of information does the Client Activity History Report provide in IBM Tivoli Storage Manager
V6.2?
A. image backups
B. client nodes in session
C. client nodes participating
D. network data management protocol backups
Answer: C

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NO.20 After configuring the monitoring agent for monitoring, which application is used to display the IBM Tivoli
Storage Manager V6.2 near real-time status?
A. IBM Tivoli Integrated Portal
B. IBM Tivoli Enterprise Portal
C. IBM Tivoli Monitoring Center
D. IBM Tivoli Productivity Center
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 000-M602
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Banking Industry Solutions Sales Mastery Test v1)

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NO.1 What is one of the areas that banks need to address to become more customer-centric in their
products, services, and offerings?
A. Bookkeeping changes
B. Select banking
C. Demographic changes
D. Changing banking hours
Answer: B

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NO.2 What will be the focus of consumers who were hurt by the recent market crisis?
A. Solutions for retirement spending
B. Solutions for vacation property
C. Solutions for investment income
D. Solutions for retirement income
Answer: C

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NO.3 What happened to banking operating profit margins between 1995 and 2005?
A. Decreased
B. Increased
C. Remained the same
D. Plunged
Answer: B

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NO.4 USAA Bank has come up with a really interesting device. What is it?
A. Devices that can take a picture of your family
B. Devices that take a picture of your banking transactions at an ATM
C. Devices that can take a picture of your check
D. Devices that can take a picture of your passport
Answer: C

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NO.5 What is a key focus for banks in the Asia Pacific region?
A. Interpersonal expansion
B. Industrial expansion
C. Internal expansion
D. International expansion
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 000-M225
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Tivoli Internet Security Systems Sales Mastery Test v2)

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NO.1 Which of the following is the best way to educate a potential client on the full range of IBM security
solutions and win the account?
A.Send the client the latest Gartner report showing IBM Security in the magic quadrant along with
McAfee, Symantec, and SourceFire.
B.Show the client a reference from a client in the same industry
C.Recommend another vendor in the portfolio that may be able to meet the client requirements.
D.Arrange a workshop in partnership with IBM Security to demonstrate IBM Security's X-Force
and strong solutions
Answer: D

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NO.2 What is the name of the IBM Security research and development organization?
A.Global Security Operations Center
B.X-Force
C.X-Cert
D.Security Intel Resource
Answer: B

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NO.3 Based upon discussions with several different vendors, a client has requested an Intrusion
Prevention System (IPS) competitive evaluation What action should the seller take?
A.Request that IBM Global Finance deliver evaluation equipment to the client
B.Complete the evaluation agreement form, and deliver the equipment to the client for testing
C.Provide the client with a tour of a Global Security Operations Center to showcase the
capabilities of IBM security products
D.Work with a Systems Engineer to schedule delivery and implementation of the evaluation
product in the client's environment.
Answer: D

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NO.4 A Business Partner identifies a large intrusion prevention and managed services opportunity with a
long-term client.Because of the size of the opportunity, the IBM Sales Representative
recommends engaging the local IBM Security Specialist
Which statement is correct regarding this opportunity?
A.The Business Partner refers the opportunity to the IBM Specialist and receives a 20% finder's
fee
B.The IBM Specialist takes control of the opportunity and the Business Partner fulfills the order.
C.The IBM Specialist provides a client business plan to the IBM Sales Representative to guide
the Business Partner.
D.The Business Partner keeps ownership of the progression of the opportunity while the IBM
Specialist provides support
Answer: D

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NO.5 IBM Security positions its products as being "ahead of the threat-How is this achieved?
A.By relying on regular signature updates.
B.By not disclosing vulnerabilities until a patch is available for products.
C.By not relying on signature updates and utilizing heuristics.
D.By taking feeds from the global Managed Security Services operation and providing updates in
real time.
Answer: C

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NO.6 An IBM Business Partner is planning a security event for several regional clients in the retail
industry.Which actions should an IBM Business Partner take?
A.Research Partner World for industry specific marketing collateral.
B.Engage Techline to develop presentation content and help pay for a local venue.
C.Ask IBM to send out invitations to their clients
D.Engage their IBM Security Representative and request support from Channel Marketing to
obtain a reputable industry security speaker for the event and to help with invitations, presentation
content, and logistics
Answer: D

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NO.7 A potential client recently acquired a competitor organization and is considering infrastructure
consolidation.The person responsible for this project is new to the role and needs advice on how
to start the process
What action should the seller take?
A.Meet with the client and Systems Engineer to discuss options and help design the new
architecture.
B.Send the client some case studies from PartnerWorld showing similar requirements.
C.Send the client the latest solutions guide that describes the best use and deployment of
IBMSecurityappliances
D.Schedule a meeting with the technical staff from both organizations to gain an understanding of
the existing architecture.
Answer: A

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NO.8 A client is concerned about the number of security agents currently supported on its desktop
image.What should the Systems Engineer discuss?
A.How IBM Security Network Intrusion Prevention System appliances reduce the risk of infection
or breach and mitigate the need for most security agents on the desktops.
B.How completing a data classification study allows IBM to help the client understand where its
data security risks reside
C.How the IBM Security Tivoli Endpoint Manager strategy will provide the client with one
framework for host management and security.
D.How Enterprise Scanner can automate vulnerability assessment and reduce the number of
endpoint security agents currently used
Answer: C

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NO.9 How does IBM Security offer end-to-end security today?
A.Continually looks for product updates and enhancements and actively works with the Research
& Development community.
B.Evaluates gaps in the IBM Security Framework and acquires the appropriate security vendors
C.Offers a free Security Health Scan to any client.
D.Provides the industry's broadest information security training and certification courses.
Answer: A

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NO.10 A client has deployed SourceFire Intrusion Prevention System appliances but finds it challenging
to keep up with the constant flood of signatures What is the best IBM Security technology
differentiator?
A.Protocol Analysis Module in IBM Security host, endpoint, and network solutions.
B.Content Analyzer function in IBM Security Intrusion Prevention System appliances
C.The decryptions function in IBM Security Server Sensor.
D.IBMSecuritySecurityFusion Module function in IBM Security SiteProtector.
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 000-M249
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Cognos Financial Performance Management Sales Mastery Test vl)

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NO.1 Which agenda item is assigned the highest priority by Chief Information Officers (ClOs), according to
studies by IBM and Gartner?
A. compliance
B. business analytics
C. mobility solutions
D. risk management
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which product is best suited for a company looking to automate their electronic financial reporting
processes to ensure regulatory compliance?
A. Clarity FSR
B. OpenPages ITG
C. Cognos Controller
D. Cognos TMl
Answer: C

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NO.3 What is NOT one of the three ways the world is changing according to the IBM Smarter Planet
message?
A. intricate
B. instrumented
C. interconnected
D. intelligent
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which financial reporting format, supported by IBM Clarity FSR, is quickly becoming the global standard
for exchanging business information because of how efficiently data can be tagged and analyzed.?
A. GAAP
B. XBRL
C. IFRS
D. EDGAR
Answer: B

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NO.5 An organization is struggling to efficiently meet the financial reporting requirements in their country.
Which offering is designed specifically to help this customer automate their entire compliance lifecycle?
A. OpenPages UG
B. OpenPages Audit
C. OpenPages Operational Risk Management (ORM)
D. OpenPages Financial Controls Management (FCM)
Answer: D

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