2013年11月30日星期六

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Exam Code: 000-N03
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Commerce Solutions Selling Technical Mastery Test v1)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 25 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 How do you check if Gift Center is already enabled at a WebSphere Commerce installation?
A. Run versionInfo.sh
B. Check database table SITE
C. Check properties/version folder
D. Check xml/config folder
Answer: C

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NO.2 Gift Center can provide benefits to retailers. Which one of the following statement is NOT a benefit of
using Gift Center?
A. Improve customer satisfaction.
B. Increase customer reach.
C. Increase sales volume.
D. Give more discounts to customers.
Answer: D

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NO.3 What is NOT a feature of WebSphere Commerce contracts.?
A. Customer organization modeling.
B. Custom Catalog
C. Product pricing
D. Business Policies
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 000-470
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Unica Campaign V8.5)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 108 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 The custom macro has been configured to select on "audience id" and a return value. When this custom
macro is executed an error is received. What could cause this problem?
A. There are user variables used in the custom macro.
B. The Expression Type is configured incorrectly for the custom macro.
C. The custom macro is the same as one of the Campaign built-in macros.
D. The custom macro is too large for the fields in the temp table (<TempTable>).
Answer: B

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NO.2 A specialist creates a numeric user variable called MinBalance and assigns an initial value of 100 to it.
The specialist wants the Select process to return all IDs where the mapped field AccountBalance is
greater than MinBalance. What is the correct syntax to use?
A. MinBalance < AccountBalance
B. AccountBalance > MinBalance
C. AccountBalance > UserVar.MinBalance
D. AccountBalance is GT than UserVar.MinBalance
Answer: C

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NO.3 In a Unica Campaign flowchart Select process, how can a custom macro be profiled so that it appears in
the Select process "Available Fields" menu?
A. Select "Options" from the main menu in a flowchart, choose "Custom Macros...". Click "New Item" and
add the macro name and field expression.Go to the "Select" process and choose the macro from the
"Available Fields" column.
B. Select "Options" from the main menu in a flowchart, choose "Custom Macros...". Click "New Macro"
and add the macro name and fieldexpression. Go to the "Select" process and choose the macro from the
"Available Fields" column.
C. In the "Select" process box, create a "Derived Field" with a field name Profile_Test and enter the macro
name in the expression field. Go tothe "Select" process "Source" tab and select the macro from the
"Available Fields" column.
D. In the "Select" process box "Source" tab, click the Input field and the drop-down list appears. Go to
"Tables", select "UA_CUSTOMMACROS",and select the macro from the list. Select the macro when it
appears in the "Available Fields" column.
Answer: C

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NO.4 A specialist is responsible for making sure that Unica Campaign flowcharts run successfully. If an error
occurs, the specialist needs to be informed by email. Therefore, the specialist creates a batch script which
interacts with the mail server and sends an email to the IT department helpdesk to be informed in case
problems arise in a Campaign flowchart. Where can the specialist best relate to this script from within the
Campaign flowchart? The specialist creates an outbound trigger, invokes the batch script in the trigger,
and:
A. assigns a trigger in a mail list or call list process.
B. schedules a trigger to run on a case-by-case basis.
C. uses the eMessage process to send out these emails.
D. assigns it in the Advanced settings section on the Campaign flowchart and has the trigger run on
Flowchart Run Error.
Answer: D

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NO.5 A user needs to output data from a Unica Campaign flowchart and does not need to utilize the data
within the flowchart. This can be done by creating and outputting the data to a:
A. fact table.
B. general table.
C. dimension table.
D. base record table.
Answer: B

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NO.6 A user is mapping a flat file into Unica Campaign. The user needs to ensure that the file ends with a:
A. tab.
B. comma.
C. closing bracket.
D. carriage return, line feed.
Answer: D

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NO.7 In Unica Campaign, how are the Scheduler and Schedule process used?
A. The Schedule process is used to configure the Campaign Scheduler. This enables the use of the
Schedule process in a flowchart.
B. The Scheduler is an administration tool used to configure schedules. Use the Schedule process to
select the schedule to use as part of theflowchart.
C. The Scheduler is a Marketing Platform function that defines Schedule process attributes. The
Schedule process is used to initiate a process,series of processes, or an entire flowchart.
D. The Scheduler starts a flowchart even if it is not running, while the Schedule process in a flowchart
works only if the flowchart is running. TheScheduler should not be used to schedule a flowchart that uses
the Schedule process.
Answer: D

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NO.8 A user would like to create a 10% holdout control group from a Cell which contains 1000 Audience IDs.
Which Unica Campaign flowchart process box is the BEST way to accomplish this?
A. Merge process
B. Sample process
C. Segment process
D. Snapshot process
Answer: B

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NO.9 A user is trying to create RAW SQL in a Select process. "Select IDs with" is selected but when the user
clicks on the advanced button the "RAW SQL for Record Selection" check box is greyed out. What is the
user doing wrong?
A. The correct tables are not mapped in.
B. A SQL Custom Macro has not been created.
C. The Select process is in Point and Click mode.
D. Unica Campaign is not connected to the database.
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which of the following is NOT true about how a user variable can be used in Unica Campaign?
A. A user variable can be used in a custom macro.
B. A user variable can be used in an outbound trigger.
C. A user variable can be used within a SQL statement.
D. A user variable can be defined in one flowchart and then referenced in another flowchart.
Answer: D

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NO.11 Within a flowchart a user wants to switch audiences from the Household level to the Customer level. In
order to do this, a table containing both columns is necessary. This can be accomplished by mapping a
table:
A. into the catalog twice, once at the Household level and once at the Customer Level.
B. into the catalog and select the Household column and the Customer column when selecting the
audience level.
C. in as a base table at the Household level and then map the same table in as a dimension table joined
to the base table on the Customercolumn.
D. in at the Household level as a table is normally mapped and then use the "Specify Additional
Audiences" screen to select the Customer columnwithin the table.
Answer: D

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NO.12 A user has added a new Unica Campaign Attribute and would like to make that attribute available to the
Cognos reports. To do this, the user needs to:
A. use the Reports SQL generator to update the existing reporting views.
B. use the Reports SQL generator to create new views which include the new attribute.
C. do nothing, once the new column is added the reports model is automatically updated.
D. use the Cognos application administrator to create a new data framework which includes the new
attribute.
Answer: B

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NO.13 In a Unica Campaign Flowchart, a customer database table (see below) is mapped in a Select process
box. There is a requirement to segment and organize customers based on their income, which would
typically have the values "HIGH" for customers whose income is greater than 100000 and "LOW" for
customers whose income is less than or equal to 100000. This value needs to be output with the final
target list.
Ideally which step should be executed to get the task done?
A. Alter the table to add a new column with the required logic.
B. Create a Persistent Derived field with the logic : IF(Customer_Demographic_Info.Income >
100000,'HIGH','LOW').
C. Create a Strategic Segment with the logic : IF(Customer_Demographic_Info.Income >
100000,'HIGH','LOW').
D. Create a User Variable HIGH and LOW with the logic: IF(Customer_Demographic_Info.Income >
100000,'HIGH','LOW').
Answer: B

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NO.14 A table Customer_master contains 1000 customer_ids. A select box was created and all the
customer_ids from the table were selected. However, when the select box was run, the output cell
contained only a fraction of the total customers. When a test query was performed in the above
mentioned select box, all 1000 customers were selected. What could be cause of this issue?
A. Global suppression.
B. The Select process was not configured properly.
C. The table mapping of Customer_master are out-of-date.
D. Incorrect audience level has been chosen for the Customer_master table.
Answer: A

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NO.15 A user is designing a Campaign flowchart. The user wants to retrieve and use a derived field which
was saved in a previous Campaign. Which of the steps below is correct to achieve this task?
A. The user cannot retrieve derived field expressions saved in other Campaigns.
B. Search the previous Campaign and copy the required derived field expression.
C. Retrieve the expression from the Stored Derived fields directory from the Options menu.
D. Retrieve the expression from the Stored Derived fields directory in a Select process box.
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 000-220
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Sterling Connect:Direct, Administration)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 120 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 Which component is invoked to stop Sterling Connect:Direct for UNIX?
A. Security Exit
B. User Manager
C. Session Manager
D. Process Manager
Answer: D

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NO.2 An administrator installed Sterling Connect:Direct for UNIX in the directory /opt/connect and defined
the local node name as CDUNIX01. The administrator wants to start Connect:Direct for UNIX Command
Line Interface (CLI) client to submit a process. Which environment variable must the administrator set to
get access to this client?
A. PATH=/opt/connect/ndm/bin/direct
B. PATH=/opt/connect/ndm/bin/ndmcli
C. NDMAPICFG=/opt/connect/ndm/cfg/cliapi/ndmapi.cfg
D. NDMAPICFG=/opt/connect/ndm/cfg/CDUNIX01/initparm.cfg
Answer: C

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NO.3 An administrator installed Sterling Connect:Direct for Windows node on a new server. The
administrator also defined new Functional Authorities for another user. When the user logs onto the
server and opens Connect:Direct Requester for the first time, the node is not displayed. The Nodes view
is empty. What should the user do in order to attach to the new node?
A. Add the new node to the netmap.
B. Contact the administrator and ask to verify access.
C. Logon to the server with the administrator's account.
D. Select Node>Connection Settings>Insert Node and enter the local node information.
Answer: D

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NO.4 A Sterling Connect:Direct for Windows environment is installed to allow for high availability, by
assigning a virtual IP address to the cluster to which each node is then bound to. Which local node
parameter is used to specify this virtual IP address?
A. node.check
B. tcp.host.port
C. outgoing.address
D. Alternate Comminfo
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which utility can be used via command line to export and import users and netmap settings in Sterling
Connect:Direct for Windows?
A. Client Connection Utility
B. Logon Configuration Utility (LCU)
C. Connect:Direct Configuration Utility
D. Connect:Direct Command Line Interface (CLI)
Answer: C

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NO.6 An administrator wants to stop Sterling Connect:Direct for UNIX but Connect:Direct needs to run all
executing processes to completion before shutting down. Which command should be submitted?
A. stop;
B. stop step;
C. stop force;
D. stop immediate;
Answer: A

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NO.7 A SNIFFER trace shows the following entries:
A NETSTAT display was performed. What is the correct connection state that a user should expect?
A. LAST ACK
B. FIN WAIT1
C. ESTABLISHED
D. The administrator would NOT expect to see a connection show up.
Answer: D

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NO.8 In Sterling Connect:Direct for UNIX, in which path is the file ndmproc located?
A. ndm/lib/
B. ndm/bin/
C. ndm/cfg/cliapi/
D. ndm/cfg/cd_node/
Answer: B

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NO.9 In Sterling Connect:Direct for Windows, which parameter is required when configuring a remote node
using Advanced Program to Program Communication (APPC)?
A. Partner LU Name
B. Alternate Comminfo
C. Host Name/IP Address
D. UDT communication path name
Answer: A

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NO.10 When configuring a node in Sterling Connect:Direct for Windows, which field is found on the General
properties tab in the CD Admin Tool?
A. API IP Address
B. Local LU Name
C. Max PNode Sessions
D. Enable TCP/IP Support
Answer: C

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NO.11 Which of the following is supported by Sterling Connect:Direct for z/OS V1 FMH flows?
A. XDR Keywords
B. Mapped DSECTS
C. ZLIB Compression
D. Cyclic redundancy check (CRC)
Answer: B

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NO.12 A Sterling Connect:Direct for z/OS administrator navigated to the Secure+ Admin Tool: Main
Screen?shown here: Which Connect:Direct Secure+ remote node supports the STS encryption protocol?
A. SECURE.REMOTE01
B. SECURE.REMOTE02
C. SECURE.REMOTE03
D. SECURE.REMOTE04
Answer: B

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NO.13 A user is building a process to send a compressed ZIP archive file to a remote node. What
compression setting is most efficient and provides the best performance for this type of file?
A. COMPRESS Extended
B. COMPRESS PRIMECHAR=X'20'
C. COMPRESS Extended=(CMPrlevel=9,WINdowsize=15,MEMlevel=9)
D. No compression.
Answer: D

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NO.14 A Sterling Connect:Direct for Windows and UNIX user wants to get a list of processes that completed
successfully. The command begins with: select statistics ccode=(=,0) recids=... ; Which Record Id filters
will complete this command?
A. CTRC
B. PRED
C. PSED
D. PSTR
Answer: B

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NO.15 A Sterling Connect:Direct for Windows and UNIX user wants to determine the outcome of process
numbers 10 to 15. What command can retrieve this information?
A. select statistics pnumber=(10-15);
B. select statistics pnumber=(10..15);
C. select statistics pnumber=10,11,12,13,14,15;
D. select statistics pnumber=(10,11,12,13,14,15);
Answer: D

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NO.16 In Sterling Connect:Direct for UNIX, an administrator is setting up multiple nodes in a load balancing
environment on a cluster file system (not an NFS). The administrator needs to specify a shared area
where the multiple nodes can place return code files and copy checkpoint information, so that the various
nodes are aware of activity. What parameter is used to specify this?
A. ndm.path
B. comm.info
C. quiesce.resume
D. snode.work.path
Answer: D

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NO.17 A Sterling Connect:Direct for Windows and UNIX user is troubleshooting a problem for either changing,
deleting, selecting or terminating a process. Which diagnostic trace option should be used?
A. cmgr
B. pmgr
C. smgr
D. comm
Answer: B

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NO.18 One of the benefits of using Sterling Connect:Direct is that it:
A. focuses on message switching.
B. utilizes proprietary data formatting.
C. provides 24 x 365 unattended operation.
D. offers manual restart through the use of email.
Answer: C

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NO.19 A Sterling Connect:Direct for Windows administrator needs to verify that the latest fixes have been
applied. Which option will show the release and maintenance level of the Windows node?
A. SPAdmin
B. Admin Tool
C. Message Lookup
D. Configuration Utility
Answer: B

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NO.20 A Sterling Connect:Direct for UNIX administrator needs to submit a process directly into the Execution
queue in order to bypass the Wait queue. Which command will accomplish this task?
A. submit
B. submit hold=no
C. submit retain=no
D. submit maxdelay=0
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 00M-194
Exam Name: IBM (IBM InfoSphere Guardium Sales Mastery Test v1)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 25 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 According to Verizon Business 2009 Data Breach Report, the majority of compromised
data__________?
A. occurs on database server level
B. resides outside of the firewall
C. is a result of laptop theft
D. happens because of insecure storage devices
Answer: D

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NO.2 In the European Telco case, one of their immediate needs is to _________.
A. protect privacy of call records for compliance with data privacy laws
B. meet governance requirements
C. optimize database usage
D. migrate from Oracle to Microsoft database technology
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which of the following is false?
A. Oracle Audit Vault does not rely on native logs.
B. Oracle Database Audit/Vault does not enforce separation of duties.
C. Oracle Database Vault does not support heterogeneous DB environments
D. Oracle Database/Audit Vault does not provide real-time monitoring and alerting.
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 00M-604
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Government Industry Solutions Sales Mastery Test v1 )
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 30 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 What can the IBM Government Industry Framework foundation platform also be used for?
A. Other objectives
B. Other training programs
C. Other industries
D. None of the above
Answer: D

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NO.2 What tools are smart governments empowering staff and field workers with while safely securing
physical environments?
A. Video surveillance and mobile devices
B. Transportation and communications
C. Manpower surveillance and mobile devices
D. Internet and mobile surveillance devices
Answer: C

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NO.3 What does a pre-integrated and pre-tested stack of software products address in each project or
solution in the Government Framework.?
A. A set of products
B. The pain points
C. A set of standards
D. A set of goals
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 000-332
Exam Name: IBM (High Availability for AIX - Technical Support and Administration -v2)
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Total Q&A: 132 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 Given the information from hacmp.out below, why is the cluster in config_too_long status?
A. The script /APP1/serv/scripts/shut_down does not exist.
B. The APP1 stop_server script exited with a non zero return code.
C. The application did not shut down correctly, which caused the rg_move operation to exceed the time
limit to complete.
D. The rg_move event is sleeping for anything between 360 seconds and 3600 hours until the
stop_server script is complete.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Consider the following PowerHA DLPAR configuration for a cluster, and LPAR profile on the HMC for a
standby node in that cluster: How should the standby node profile be reconfigured so that an application
runs with the minimum hardware resources?
A. Minimum and Desired processing units = 0.1 and Maximum processing units = 0.6
B. Minimum and Desired processing units = 0.2 and Maximum processing units = 0.5
C. Minimum processing units = 0.6 and both Desired and Maximum processing units = 1.5
D. Minimum processing units = 0.5 and both Desired and Maximum processing units = 0.9
Answer: D

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NO.3 There is a two-node cluster with Node1 and Node2. An administrator changes filesystem size on Node1
by using the chfs command, and moves resource the group to Node2.
The administrator finds the change of filesystem size is recognized on Node2.
Why is the filesystem size change reflected on Node2?
A. The gsclvmd daemon automatically synchronizes filesystem changes.
B. The filesystem size change is recognized when filesystem is mounted on Node2.
C. A pre-event is defined to get_disk_vg_fs event to reflect filesystem size change.
D. The shared volume group is re-imported on Node2 by lazy update when moving the resource group.
Answer: A

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NO.4 What cluster service settings can be defined in SMIT on one node of a cluster and automatically
updated on all other nodes?
A. BROADCAST message at startup
B. Start HACMP at system restart
C. Verify Cluster Prior to Startup
D. Startup Cluster Information Daemon
Answer: A

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NO.5 An administrator is using PowerHA 7 to define a new cluster using SMIT option "Setup a Cluster, Nodes
and Networks" and encountered the following error message:
What is the root cause of the problem?
A. The nodes were not defined in the DNS
B. The /etc/cluster/rhosts are not populated correctly
C. The CAA repository disk is not accessible on all nodes
D. The CAA cluster was not defined before defining the PowerHA Cluster
Answer: B

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NO.6 A 2-node cluster has three multi-node disk heartbeat (MNDHB) networks and data volume groups on
separate disks. Application resource groups are online on Node1. What happens if Node1 loses access to
two of the three MNDHB disks?
A. Node1 halts
B. Application resource groups move to Node2
C. Application resource groups remain on Node1
D. Application resource groups on Node1 go offline
Answer: B

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NO.7 An administrator is planning to upgrade from HACMP 5.5 and AIX 5.3 to PowerHA 7 and AIX 7. After
migration installing AIX, what must be done first?
A. Install CAAfileset.
B. Migrate to PowerHA 7.
C. Run the clmigcheck program.
D. Create shared VG for use by CAA.
Answer: C

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NO.8 When PowerHA SystemMirror 7.1 is installed on AIX 7.1, what RSCT component does Cluster Aware
AIX (CAA) replace?
A. Group Services
B. Resource Manager
C. Topology Services
D. Resource Monitoring and Control (RMC)
Answer: A

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NO.9 When implementing PowerHA in a cross site LVM configuration, which logical volume option is
required.?
A. Serialize IO=yes
B. Mirror Write Consistency=on
C. Scheduling Policy=sequential
D. Allocation Policy=superstrict
Answer: D

IBM   000-332 test   000-332

NO.10 The service IPs VLAN is the only routable network in a 2-node HA cluster with multiple network
interfaces. What must done to enable administrative tasks to be performed remotely on the cluster
nodes?
A. Associate a permanent Service IP address for each HA node.
B. Configure the boot IP Address on the same VLAN as the service IP Address.
C. Configure a persistent IP Address for each node on the service IP network.
D. Create a route on the switch and translate the Service IP address to the boot IP address using NAT.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 000-N24
Exam Name: IBM (IBM QRadar Technical Sales Mastery Test v1)
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Total Q&A: 42 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 How do you add a new (supported) DSM to the system?
A. Download the rpm to the console and use the rpm command to add it.
B. You cannot add new DSMs to the system.
C. Configure autoupdate on the admin tab and manually add the DSM using the rpm command on the
console.
D. Both A and C are correct.
Answer: D

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NO.2 Write a regular expression that extracts only the username from the string: Username=miths?Write a
regular expression that extracts only the username from the string: Username=?miths
A. \?smith)\?\?smith)\
B. Ame=?.*?)\?Ame=?.*?)\
C. =\?.*?)
D. ame\=\?.*?)\?ame\=\?.*?)\
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which method can be used to deliver log data to QRadar?
A. Syslog
B. Opsec/LEA
C. TFTP
D. Both A and B are correct
Answer: D

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NO.4 What characteristic distinguishes QRadar from other SIM/SIEM solutions?
A. QRadar is the only solution that works in a heterogeneous environment.
B. QRadar has the best correlation engine.
C. QRadar supports many more devices.
D. QRadar is the only SIM/SIEM solution that natively processes flows.
Answer: D

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NO.5 Write a regular expression that extracts only the username from the string: serID: smiths
A. rID\:\s(.*?)\s
B. Use\:\s(.*?)\s
C. rID\:(\d+)\s
D. serid\:(.*?)\?serid\:(.*?)\
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 00M-242
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Commerce Solutions Supply Chain Mgmt Sales Mastery Test v1)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 35 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 Which of the following processes CANNOT be performed by a partner?
A. Carrier On-Boarding
B. EDI Map Testing and Certification
C. Level One Support
D. New Organization Creation
Answer: D

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NO.2 What is the most common ERP/Order Management platform that IBM TMS (Transportation
Management System) platform interfaces with.?
A. Manhattan
B. AS400
C. SAP
D. Oracle
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which of the following is NOT a capability of the IBM WMS (Warehouse Management System)
Productivity Manager?
A. Automatic recording of productivity based on tasks performed.
B. Manual recording of productivity for tasks executed outside.
C. Pick-Pack Capabilities
D. Dynamic computation of SAM (Standard Allowable Minutes) based on historical task information.
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which of the following documents CANNOT be generated in the IBM TMS (Transportation Management
System)?
A. Shipment Manifest
B. Export Declaration
C. Master Bill of Lading
D. Custom LTL Manifest
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which of the following is NOT one of the four core functional quadrants of the TMS (Transportation
Management System) solution?
A. Optimizer
B. Execution
C. Contract Management
D. Freight Payment
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 000-195
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Security QRadar V7.0 MR4)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 104 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 If the IBM Security QRadar V7.0 MR4 operator wants to graph the flow data in the Network
Activity tab,which three chart types can be presented? (Choose three.)
A. Pie Chart
B. Bar Chart
C. Line Chart
D. Area Chart
E. Gant Chart
F. Time Series Chart
Answer: A,B,F

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NO.2 Which event search group contains default PCI searches?
A. Compliance
B. System Monitoring
C. Network Monitoring and Management
D. Authentication, Identity, and User Activity
Answer: A

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NO.3 Using Quick Filter, what is a correct search term to find Blocked related activities in the
payload?
A. Blocked
B. "payload includes Blocked"
C. payload includes "Blocked"
D. (payload includes) Blocked
Answer: A

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NO.4 How can a report be set up with restricted user access?
A. Click Reports > Restrict Users
B. Click on Manage Groups and add the user to the Restricted Reports group
C. Select the appropriate users on the Report Editing wizard to access the reports
D. Click Admin > Users, edit each user, and create lists of report filters users are allowed to see
Answer: C

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NO.5 What does it mean if events are coming in as stored?
A. The events are not mapped to an existing QID map.
B. The events are being captured and parsed by a DSM.
C. The events are being captured but not being parsed by a DSM.
D. The events are being stored on disk and will be parsed by a DSM later.
Answer: C

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NO.6 If a report author shares a report with another IBM Security QRadar V7 0 MR4 user, what type
of report access is granted to the other user.?
A. The other user can only access the report if they are an administrator.
B. The other user can use the original report as if it were created by that person.
C. The report output will be defined by the intersection of networkobjects and log sources of alluser
with
whom the report is shared.
D. The other user will not have any access to the original report definition but can do as they please
with
the report definition of the shared copy.
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which steps are required to see hidden offenses in IBM Security QRadar V7.0 MR4 (QRadar)?
A. Contact the QRadar administrator to select Hidden Offenses and then choose the Show option
from
the Action menu.
B. From the Offenses page, navigate to All Offenses and open the Search menu. Select Edit Search
and
in the Search Parameters section, uncheckthe box Exclude Hidden Offenses.
C. From the Offenses page, navigate to the Offenses by Category, and click on Show Inactive
Categories
to display all hidden offenses. Click Hide Inactive Categories to hide them again.
D. Hidden Offenses are no longer associated with Offenses so a custom report and a search should
be
created that uses a search parameter where Associated with Offense equals False. To create a
custom
report, navigate to Reports and from the Actions menu select Create.
Answer: B

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NO.8 What is a QID identifier?
A. A mapping of a single device to a Q1 Labs unique identifier.
B. A mapping of a single event of an external device to a Q1 Labs unique identifier.
C. A mapping of multiple events of a single external device to a Q1 Labs unique identifier.
D. A mapping of a single event to multiple external devices to a Q1 Labs unique identifier.
Answer: B

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NO.9 How does a user search for events by high/low level category?
A. Actions menu > add a filter
B. Display drop-down > select categories
C. Add Filter icon > Category drop-down
D. View drop-down > select By Category drop-down
Answer: C

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NO.10 What is a prerequisite to create a report that contains at least one bar chart?
A. Have a color display and enable the JPanel
B. Have the role assigned to create (graphical) reports
C. Choose a search that has accumulated properties for the report
D. The search contained in the report must aggregate the results at least along one property
Answer: D

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NO.11 What is the rule for using the Quick Filter to group terms using logical expressions such as AND,
OR, and NOT?
A. The syntax is not case sensitive.
B. The syntax is case sensitive and the operators must be upper case to be recognized as logical
expressions and not as search terms.
C. The syntax is case sensitive and the operators must be placed between square brackets to be
recognized as logical expressions and not as search terms.
D. The syntax is case sensitive and the operators must be lower case and placed between square
brackets to be recognized as logical expressions and not as search terms.
Answer: B

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NO.12 On the Offense summary page, which filter is executed when the Events icon or the link with
the
number of events is clicked?
A. An event filter with all events matching the source IP address
B. An event filter with all events matching the destination IP address
C. An event filter with the Custom Rule Engine rule(s) for the last 24 hours
D. An event filter with the Custom Rule Engine rule(s) for the duration of the offense
Answer: D

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NO.13 How many default dashboards are included in IBM Security QRadar V7.0 MR4?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 5
D. 8
Answer: C

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NO.14 Which flow source is most often sampled?
A. vFlow
B. sFlow
C. QFlow
D. netflow
Answer: B

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NO.15 Offenses can be exported to which two file formats? (Choose two.)
A. RTF
B. XML
C. PDF
D. CSV
E. HTML
Answer: B,D

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Exam Code: LOT-924
Exam Name: IBM (IBM WebSphere Portal 8.0 Migration and Support)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 68 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 Florence has taken a position with a new company that has a large IBM WebSphere Portal
deployment that is active. While reviewing the topology of the IBM Web Content Manager libraries,
she discovers that users have greater rights than necessary to a few components of the entire
Human Resource library.
Florence needs to restrict access to these few components while leaving the remainder of the
Human
Resource Web Content Manager library with the same security that is in place.
Which of the following types of security methodologies should she utilize to best achieve this goal?
A. Divided
B. Accrued
C. Additive
D. Subtractive
Answer: D

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NO.2 Xander needs to add a new personalization resource cache for a specific resource collection.
How does he do this?
A. Add rulesEngine.cache.enabled.collectionName to the PersonalizationService.properties file
where
collectionName is name of the resourcecollection and set it to true.
B. Set rulesEngine.cache.enabled to true inthe PersonalizationService.properties file.
C. He cannot enable or disable caching for a specific collection.
D. Set rulesEngine.collection.cache.enabled to collectionName in PersonalizationService.properties
file
where collectionName is name of theresource collection and set to true.
Answer: A

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NO.3 Users of the IBM Web Content Manager authoring system have just reported timeout errors
when saving large items.
What can be done to over come these errors?
A. Increase the total transaction lifetime timeout setting using the IBM WebSphere Integrated
Solutions console
B. Increase the session timeout using the IBM WebSphere Integrated Solutions console.
C. Increase the resource.maxUploadSize property in WCMConfigService using the IBM WebSphere
Integrated Solutions console.
D. Request users not to create items that are large.
Answer: A

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NO.4 Tony wants to migrate the web content data from IBM WebSphere Portal 7.0 to WebSphere
Portal
8.0. Which of the following options does he need to do?
A. He needs to run the wcmmigrate all-data task to migrate the IBM Web Content Manager data.
B. He needs to run the WPmigrate migrate-wcm task to migrate the Web Content Manager data.
C. He needs to make a copy of WebSphere Portal 7.0 JCR repository and run the ConfigEngine
connect-database task to connect to thecopy ofthe JCR repository.
D. He needs to make a copy of WebSphere Portal 7.0 JCR repository and run a ConfigEngine
validate-databasetask to connect to the copy ofthe JCR repository.
Answer: C

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NO.5 John is building a website based on IBM WebSphere Portal that renders multiple portlets in
the portal pages, but he is required to show only specific portlets that user had depending on the
groups they belong in the LDAP.
How can he hide portlets to which logged in users do not have access?
A. John can use the Personalization features in the WebSphere Portal. He can hide the portlets by
creating a "Visibility Rule" to hide or displayportlet based on group membership.
B. John can use the Personalization features in the WebSphere Portal. He can create a "Select Action
Rule" rule anddisplay select portlets in thepage.
C. John can use the Personalization features in the WebSphere Portal. He can create a "Display Rule"
rule and display select portlets in the page.
D. No, Out of box Personalization features does not allow to hide specific porltets in the page. Only
the
visibilityof page can be controlled usingrules.
Answer: A

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NO.6 Web content viewer portlets can be used to display IBM Web Content Manager content in an
IBM
WebSphere Portal environment. Barry needs to display a list of content items in one viewer portlet
such
that when an item is clicked its details are shown in another viewer portlet. How can he make this
happen?
A. It is not possible to have list and detail portlets on a single page.Instead, Barry should use one
viewer
portlet to allow for drill downmechanism.
B. Configure the - Broadcast links to - and - Receive links from -settings of the two content viewer
portlets
on the page.
C. No configuration is needed as two Web Content Manager viewer portlets on the same page will
come
with defaults that handle this list anddetail scenario.
D. Under preferences select the checkbox Master for the first content viewer portlet and checkbox
Detail
for second content viewer portlet.
Answer: B

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NO.7 GreenCo has set up several web content libraries for IBM Web Content Manager to separate
content. Tony is in charge of designing graphic images for all portals at GreenCo. He has set up a
library to store these images. Jackie runs the Marketing portal for GreenCo and uses the images that
Tony has created. Jackie sets up her library to syndicate from the authoring server to the Marketing
portal but receives syndication errors, what could be the cause of the errors?
A. Jackie needs to set up two-way syndication with the Marketing portal.
B. Tony needs to copy his Web Content Manager library to the Marketing portal.
C. Both Tony library and Jackie library need to be included in the syndication and a syndication
relationship should be created.
D. Tony needs to set up a new JCR database on the Marketing portal to store his images.
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which best describes how you prevent linking to unsafe servers when creating links in an IBM
Web Content Manager rich text element to content in a remote enterprise content management
server?
A. You need to specify a list of allowed domains that your portal can access using the portal's AJAX
proxy component.
B. You can use the global Ajax proxy configuration to customize the outgoing HTTP traffic, such as
applying specific HTTP timeout values orconfiguring an outbound HTTP proxy server.
C. Map the URL patterns for the content management server to the federated_documents_policy
dynamic policy using the WP ConfigServiceconfiguration service using the IBM WebSphere
Integrated Solutions console.
D. All of the above.
Answer: D

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NO.9 What is Attribute Based Administration in IBM WebSphere Portal Server 8.0?
A. Attribute based administration provides a facility to add or remove portlets from a WebSphere
Portal.
B. Attribute based administration provides a facility to customize the layout of a page for individual
authenticatedusers by using rules to show orhide pages or portlets inside WebSphere Portal.
C. Attribute based administration provides a facility add administrators to a WebSphere Portal
withouthaving to use WebSphere Portaladministration.
D. Attribute based administration provides a facility to block users from using WebSphere Portal.
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which database is used to store IBM Web Content Manager content?
A. jcr
B. release
C. community
D. portal
Answer: A

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