2013年10月31日星期四

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Exam Code: 000-605
Exam Name: IBM (IBM WebSphere Enterprise Service Bus V7.0,Integration Development)
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Total Q&A: 114 Questions and Answers
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NO.1 An integration developer is developing a mediation flow component to integrate PeopleSoft Enterprise.
The integration developer has identified WebSphere Adapter for PeopleSoft Enterprise for this integration.
Which technology specification is implemented by this adapter?
A. Java EE Connector Architecture (JCA)
B. Java EE Component Architecture (JCA)
C. Java EE Connectivity Architecture (JCA)
D. Java EE Communication Architecture (JCA)
Answer: A

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NO.2 An integration developer has developed a new mediation flow and wants to test it on a new embedded
server profile. How should the integration developer proceed in order to perform this testing as efficiently
as possible?
A. Build the EAR file inWebSphere Integration Developer, then deploy it via serviceDeploy on the server.
B. Build the EAR file inWebSphere Integration Developer, then deploy it via the server's administrative
console.
C. In WebSphere Integration Developer, in the Servers tab, add a new server and enter the connection
details of the server.
D. InWebSphere Integration Developer, import the server via File>Import>Server and enter the
connection details of the server.
Answer: C

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NO.3 An integration developer has been tasked to develop a mediation module that integrates a legacy J2EE
application deployed on a remote server. The legacy application is exposed through an EJB facade and
the integration developer decides to use an EJB import. What is the most suitable approach to configure it?
The integration developer should:
A. add the corresponding EJB client project to the module dependencies and select the EJB local
interface for the import.
B. import the corresponding EJB client project into the workspace and select the EJB remote interface for
the import.
C. create a WSDL interface with the same operations as the EJB interface, select it as the import interface
and add the EJB JNDI Name in the binding section.
D. use the external service wizard to point to the EJB through its IIOP URL and the wizard
automatically creates the interface and the business objects for the import.
Answer: B

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NO.4 A client wants to invoke a mediation module that contains a mediation flow. Which of the following
export bindings with Request-Response interface will ensure that the mediation flow is invoked
asynchronously with callback by the client?
A. HTTP
B. Web services (SOAP/JMS)
C. Web services (SOAP/HTTP)
D. WebSphere MQ or WebSphere MQ-JMS
Answer: D

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NO.5 An integration developer wants to access a database table on a DB2 database installed on an AIX
system using a JDBC Adapter. Using the configuration wizard of the JDBC Outbound Adapter import, the
integration developer is prompted for JAR files. Which kind of JAR files are required?
A. AIX specific JAR files
B. JDBC standard JAR files
C. DB2 specific JAR files
D. DB2 and AIX specific JAR files
Answer: C

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NO.6 Refer to the Exhibit.
The Assembly Diagram represents an existing StockQuote mediation module. The mediation module
must be enhanced to create a record in a billing system whenever a stock quote is executed. What must
be done to the Assembly Diagram to implement the enhancement?
A. Add a newBillingService import with an appropriate interface.
Add a new reference to the StockQuote mediation flow component.
Wire the new reference to the new BillingService import.
B. Add a newBillingService export with an appropriate interface.
Add a new reference to the StockQuote mediation flow component.
Wire the new reference to the new BillingService export.
C. Add a newBillingService import with an appropriate reference.
Add a new interface to the mediation flow component.
Wire the new interface to the new BillingService import.
D. Add a newBillingService export with an appropriate reference.
Add a new interface to the mediation flow component.
Wire the new interface to the new BillingService export.
Answer: A

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NO.7 An integration developer is developing a mediation module using the WebSphere Integration Developer.
The mediation module interacts with different databases, via the database lookup mediation primitive and
an Enterprise Information system (EIS) binding. It is expected that during the lifetime of this solution, the
databases connection details will change. The customer wants to avoid downtime of the applications as
much as possible. What is the BEST way for the integration developer to implement a solution so that
when database connection details change, downtime is minimized?
A. Update the details of the database connections,then deploy the updated EAR file.
B. Define the various database connection details asWebSphere Variables. When a change in the
connection details occurs, update the WebSphere Variables on the server and restart the server.
C. Define the various database connections used as JNDI names. When a change in the
connection details occurs, update the JNDI details on the server and restart the application.
D. Define a properties file for the application to load on startup. When a change in the connection details
occurs, update the details in the properties file and restart the application.
Answer: C

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NO.8 An integration developer is implementing a custom mediation primitive. The primitive has 3 out
terminals configured, Terminal1, Terminal2, and Terminal3. In the custom code, the developer wants to
propagate the original service message object (smo) to Terminal2. How should the developer implement
this in the code?
A. out.Terminal2(smo);
B. Terminal2.fire(smo);
C. fire(smo,Terminal2);
D. fire.out(smo,Terminal2);
Answer: B

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NO.9 An integration developer is developing a mediation flow component using WebSphere Adapters. It is
observed that the events are being delivered by multiple threads on several channels simultaneously.
What type of event delivery mechanism is used?
A. Ordered
B. Unordered
C. Persistent
D. Non-persistent
Answer: B

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NO.10 A mediation module must be designed to participate in a transaction initiated by a client component.
Which of the following settings should be used by the integration developer to meet the transaction
requirements for the mediation module?
A. Set the Transaction qualifier to False and the Join transaction qualifier to True.
B. Set the Transaction qualifier to Global and the Join transaction qualifier to True.
C. Set the Transaction qualifier to Local and the Join transaction qualifier to False.
D. Set the Transaction qualifier to True and the Join transaction qualifier toTrue.
Answer: B

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NO.11 An integration developer is using serviceDeploy command to generate J2EE application EAR files
from SCA modules. The serviceDeploy command expects an input file in which of the following formats?
A. .gz
B. .jar
C. .rar
D. .tar
E. .zip
Answer: B,E

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NO.12 Refer to the Exhibits.
An integration developer needs to implement an application to manage the reception of resumes for a job
application. The application must allow the applicant to attach a photo in jpeg format. The integration
developer decides to create a mediation module exposed through a Web Service Export binding using
SOAP with Referenced Attachments to save the photo to a database and send the rest of the data to a
business process for further processing. Exhibit A shows the assembly diagram of the mediation module.
Exhibit B shows the interface of the Export component of the mediation module in the interface editor.
Which actions does the integration developer need to execute in the interface editor above, in order to
correctly configure the Web Service Export binding to handle SOAP with Referenced Attachments?
A. Leave the binding style to 'document literal wrapped', change the 'attachment' input type to
'base64Binary'.A.Leave the binding style to 'document literal wrapped', change the 'attachment' input type
to 'base64Binary'.
B. Leave the binding style to 'document literal wrapped', change the 'attachment' input type to 'hexBinary',
add in the Property editor the binary content type field 'image/jpeg' for the 'attachment' input.
C. Leave the binding style to 'document literal wrapped', change the 'attachment' input type to 'hexBinary',
add in the Property editor the binary content type field 'image/jpeg' for the 'attachment' input.
D. Leave the binding style to 'document literal wrapped', change the 'attachment' input type to 'hexBinary',
add in the Property editor the binary content type field 'image/jpeg' for the 'attachment' input.
E. Change the binding style to 'document literal non wrapped', change the 'attachment' input type to
'hexBinary'.C.Change the binding style to 'document literal non wrapped', change the 'attachment' input
type to 'hexBinary'.
F. Change the binding style to 'document literal non wrapped', change the 'attachment' input type to
'hexBinary', add in the Property editor the binary content type field 'image/jpeg' for the 'attachment' input.
G. Change the binding style to 'document literal non wrapped', change the 'attachment' input type to
'hexBinary', add in the Property editor the binary content type field 'image/jpeg' for the 'attachment' input.
H. Change the binding style to 'document literal non wrapped', change the 'attachment' input type to
'hexBinary', add in the Property editor the binary content type field 'image/jpeg' for the 'attachment' input.
Answer: F,G,H

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NO.13 Two integration developers are working on the same mediation module using WebSphere Integration
Developer. The module code needs to be merged at the end of each day so that the developers start at
the same completion level next day. Which of the following options is the correct way to achieve this with
respect to the versioning support in WebSphere Integration Developer? The developers can:
A. continue working on their individual versions of the projects and user 'compare projects' feature at the
beginning of each day.
B. continue working on their individual versions of the projects and merge them using a source control tool
at the end of each day.
C. maintain multiple versions of the projects in their respective workspaces and use the 'merge projects'
feature at the end of each day.
D. maintain multiple versions of the projects in their respective workspaces and use the
'synchronize projects' feature at the end of each day.
Answer: B

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NO.14 The integration developer has an existing mediation flow that was developed using WebSphere
Integration Developer V6.2. The developer would like to take advantage of functionality in new mediation
primitives of WebSphere Integration Developer V7.0 to enhance the mediation flow design. What should
the integration developer do to migrate project artifacts from WebSphere Integration Developer V6.2 to
WebSphere Integration Developer V7.0? From WebSphere Integration Developer V6.2, export the
artifacts:
A. into a JAR file.Import the JAR file into the WebSphere Integration Developer V7.0, which will
automatically migrate the project.
B. as an EAR file.Import the EAR file into WebSphere Integration Developer V7.0, which will automatically
migrate the project.
C. into a Project Interchange (PI) file. Import the PI file into WebSphere Integration Developer V7.0. Then
use the migration wizard to complete the process.
D. into an Eclipse Product.Import the Eclipse file into WebSphere Integration Developer V7.0. Then use
the migration wizard to complete the process.
Answer: C

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NO.15 A PurchaseOrder business object and a SalesOrder business object inherit from an abstract Order
business object. Both PurchaseOrder and SalesOrder objects require an orderDate property.
However, PurchaseOrder requires an orderType property that is not required by SalesOrder. What is the
BEST way to model the objects?
A. Define theorderDate property in the abstract Order
Define the orderType property in PurchaseOrder
B. Define theorderDate property in the abstract Order
Define the orderType property in the abstract Order
C. Define theorderDate property in PurchaseOrder and SalesOrder
Define the orderType property in PurchaseOrder
D. Define theorderDate property in PurchaseOrder and SalesOrder
Define the orderType property in the abstract Order
Answer: A

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NO.16 An integration developer is designing an XML map that combines the firstName and lastName
elements of the source into a single fullName element in the target. In addition, the fullName element
must be formatted with the lastName first, followed by a comma and then the firstName.
Which transform type would be the most appropriate for this situation?
A. Move
B. Concat
C. Append
D. Assign
Answer: B

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NO.17 An integration developer wants to make some of the properties of the mediation primitives configurable
at runtime. Which of the following properties can be promoted to be visible to be visible within the
Administrative Console (Integrated Solutions Console)?
A. 'Root' of Event Emitter
B. 'Handler' of Message Logger
C. 'Table name' of Database Lookup
D. 'Binding Type' of Endpoint Lookup
E. 'Invocation Style' of Service Invoke
Answer: C,D

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NO.18 A new version of a common business object currently defined in a shared library is required for a new
mediation module. Which of the following should be done to ensure that older modules are not
immediately affected by the change and both versions of the business object are available to all modules?
A. Create the new version of the business object using a different name in the shared library.
B. Create the new version of the business object using the same name in the new mediation module
without modifying the shared library or the other mediation modules.
C. Create the new version of the business object using a different name in the new mediation module
without modifying the shared library or the other mediation modules.
D. Move the old version of the common business object to each existing dependent mediation module,
then create the new version of the business object in the new mediation module.
Answer: A

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NO.19 An integration developer is developing a mediation flow and wants to stop the execution of a path in
the flow. The developer has to choose between a Stop and a Fail mediation primitive. Which of the
following is the correct option to consider while making a choice between the two?
A. A Stop primitive would stop the execution, throw an exception and may rollback global
transactions if configured; a Fail primitive would stop the execution and consume the message silently.
B. A Stop primitive would stop the execution and consume the message silently; a Fail primitive would
stop the execution, throw an exception and may rollback global transactions if configured.
C. A Stop primitive would stop the execution, throw an exception and consume the message; a
Fail primitive would stop the execution and may return the message to the downstream primitive through
its output terminal if configured.
D. A Stop primitive would stop the execution and may return the message to the downstream primitive
through its output terminal if configured; a Fail primitive would stop the execution, throw an exception and
may return the message to the downstream primitive through its output terminal if configured.
Answer: B

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NO.20 An integration developer has deployed different versions of the same SCA module to a server using
administrative console. Which of the following statements is TRUE about any subsequently deployed
versions of the module?
A. Previous versions of the module are cached in memory.
B. Previous versions of the module are overwritten by the new version of the module.
C. A new version of the module replaces the last version of the module.
D. A new version of the module does not replace any previous versions of the module.
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 000-173
Exam Name: IBM (IBM BPM Blueprint; IBM WebSphere Lombardi Edition V7.1, Application Development)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 72 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 A developer wants to design a process so that it can be cancelled at any time. For implementation the
developer considers using either multiple attached Intermediate Message Events, a task that could cause
the process to flow to a Terminate End Event, or a nested BPD with a single attached Intermediate
Message Event. What is a valid reason to use a nested BPD with a single attached Intermediate Message
Event over the other options?
A. A Terminate End Event will not work if the main process contains nested BPDs.
B. There is a limit to how many Activities can have attached Intermediate Message Events.
C. A nested process with a single attached Intermediate Message Event is the only one of the three
strategies that is capable of fully meeting the requirement.
D. A nested process with a single attached Intermediate message Event is the simplest of the three
strategies to implement and maintain.
Answer: D

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NO.2 The Remediate Product Delivery Failure Process requires notification from a transportation company
that the delivery failed in order to start the process. What is the most effective way to implement this in
WebSphere Lombardi Edition?
A. UCA Listener receives the notification and fires an IME before the first Activity to send the first token to
the Activity.
B. Make the first Activity a system-based Activity that is integrated with the transportation system to
receive messages and start the process.
C. Use a Start Message Event to receive the notification from a listener and begin a process instance.
D. Add an attached IME to the first Activity that listens for the notification and activates the Activity in the
participant inbox.
Answer: C

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NO.3 A home loan business process requires an applicant? credit check be performed. The BPD has a large
ApplicantData object that contains all the applicant information. Some of this data needs to be verified by
external systems. The process interacts with one external system to verify an applicant employment
information and another system to determine their existing debts. These Activities are performed in
parallel and flow to a Join.applicant employment information and another system to determine their
existing debts. These Activities are performed in parallel and flow to a Join. The output of both Activities is
the entire ApplicantData object. What will happen with the ApplicantData object once those Activities
complete?
A. The data from both objects will cause an error inWebSphere Lombardi Edition and no data will flow to
the next Activity.
B. The data from both objects will be merged byWebSphere Lombardi Edition and the merged object will
flow to the next Activity.
C. The data that gets toWebSphere Lombardi Edition first from one of the external systems will flow to the
next Activity.
D. The data that gets toWebSphere Lombardi Edition last from one of the external systems will overwrite
whatever is there and flow to the next Activity.
Answer: D

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NO.4 A claim review process is required to wait for external processing of a claim to complete before the
review process continues. However, the external processing of the claim may occur before or after the
claim review process is initiated. Which Intermediate Message Event options must be enabled to meet the
requirement?
A. Consume Anytime
B. Close Attached Activity
C. Durable Subscription
D. Receivable Anytime
Answer: C

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NO.5 Process instances can be started by firing a UCA associated with a Start Message Event and by using
the WLE Web API. From within a running process, an Activity can create a new and separate process
instance by using the JavaScript function startBPDWithName. What is a disadvantage of using the
startBPDWithName JavaScript function to start a BPD process instance?
A. The "Where Used" feature of the Authoring Environment won't find the JavaScript reference.
B. It would be difficult to find out if the second BPD process instance started successfully at runtime.
C. If there is an error before the first Activity is created it will not throw an exception back to the caller.
D. It would be difficult to know the instance ID of the second BPD process instance at runtime.
Answer: A

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NO.6 Refer to the Exhibits.
Given the exhibits, the developer has the Approve Loan Multi Instance Loop behavior configuration
completed. Does this implementation meet the requirements?
A. No, because the multiple conditions will conflict with each other and never allow the complex flow
condition to be met.
B. Yes, because the tasks are done in parallel while the condition of 2 approvers or any rejection of the
loan will meet the complex flow condition.
C. Yes, because the tasks are done in parallel while the condition of 2 approvers or any rejection of the
loan will meet the complex flow condition.
D. Yes, because the tasks are done in parallel while the condition of 2 approvers or any rejection of the
loan will meet the complex flow condition.
E. No, because a Simple Loop Type would have yielded a much more refined solution than this complex
Multi Instance Loop.
F. Yes, because the Start Quantity integer needs to change to have finite control of the loop.
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.7 An external system is configured to integrate to WLE by sending the Event Manager an XML message
via JMS. During testing, the integration is observed to fail. What would cause a failure?
A. The event message XML does not include the Process App acronym.
B. The event message XML does not include the UCA name.
C. The event message XML does not include the Snapshot name.
D. The event message XML does not include the JMS queue name.
Answer: A

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NO.8 A simple business process allows a school teacher to submit a proposal for a children field trip. Every
proposal needs to be signed off by 3 out of 5A simple business process allows a school teacher to submit
a proposal for a children? field trip. Every proposal needs to be signed off by 3 out of 5 other teachers in
order for the trip to be funded. All the teachers perform their own research and then sign off on the
proposal. How is this implemented in WebSphere Lombardi Edition?
A. Use a Multi Instance Loop. Run in parallel with a Conditional Wait (complex) Flow Condition.
B. Use a Multi Instance Loop. Run in parallel with a Wait for All to finish (all) Flow Condition.
C. Use a Simple Loop. Set Loop maximum to a variable and create a JavaScript loop condition.
D. Use a Simple Loop. Set Loop maximum to 5 and create a JavaScript loop condition.
Answer: A

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NO.9 A home loan approval business process might remain open for days and weeks until the actual loan
rate is locked in. While the loan officer is working on the application, if the APR is updated, some of the
current calculations will become invalid and they would have to apply the new rate and recalculate the
figures they originally had. This could continue to happen until the rate is locked in and the loan is secured.
Which functional approach is the most effective in maintaining the integrity of the loan approval process
application under these circumstances?
A. Use an Intermediate Message Event to cancel the process that does not have a locked-in rate.
B. Use a Start Message Event to begin the process only if a locked-in rate is secured.
C. Use an Intermediate Timer Event to escalate all rates that are invalid to a manager for an override
decision.
D. Use an Intermediate Message Event to update process variables to be the new rates.
Answer: D

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NO.10 A Process Owner requires that a particular process begins with three independent system tasks. The
WebSphere Lombardi Edition business process diagram and other assets should be designed for easy
readability by non-technical team members. There is also a technical goal to consume as few system
resources, such as CPU time, as possible. What is the most effective solution to meet all three
requirements?
A. Start the BPD with a split into three system lanes for the three system tasks.
B. Start the BPD with a nested BPD step containing the three system tasks.
C. Start the BPD with a simple loop step to run the three system tasks sequentially.
D. Start the BPD with a Service step containing nested Service steps for the three system tasks.
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 000-752
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Certified Specialist - Retail Store Solution Sales V4)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 65 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 The local city administration needs an interactive solution to enable people to search for local
attractions. The solution will be located in many different locations throughout the city, such as the airport,
parks, train stations, hotels, etc. Which IBM solution should the sales representative offer?
A. SurePOS 500
B. AnyPlace Kiosk solution
C. SurePOS 700 with touch screen
D. Lenovo PC withSurePoint touch display
Answer: B

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NO.2 What are two technical resources that sellers may use to help sell IBM retail solutions? (Choose two.)
A. IBM Retail Store SolutionsTechLine
B. IBM Client Reference Materials Database
C. IBM Retail Store Solutions sales education Web site
D. IBM Retail Store Solutions technical education Web site
Answer: A,D

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NO.3 What are two Internet-based resources a sales representative may use to identify POS competitors in a
customer account? (Choose two.)
A. competitors' Web sites
B. Hoover's POS Competition Web site
C. Securities and Exchange (SEC) filings
D. IBM Retail Store Solution product Web site
Answer: A,C

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NO.4 A Retail Store Solutions Sales Representative is staffing a booth at a trade show. Other than business
cards, what is the most important information the Sales Representative should gather from each visitor?
A. area of interest
B. most used retail vendor
C. retail budget projections
D. number of lanes per store
E. retail revenue projections
Answer: A

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NO.5 A food service retailer is interested in the SurePOS 500 for their 500 stores. Each store has five
registers. Which two resources can handle this customer's needs? (Choose two.)
A. RSS ISV
B. RSS reseller
C. IBM GBS representative
D. Retail Store Solutions (RSS) sales representative
Answer: B,D

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NO.6 What are two weaknesses of Micros? (Choose two.)
A. proprietary solutions
B. no fans in some models
C. reliance on infraredtouchscreens
D. 10/100 Ethernet LAN slowing network connectivity
Answer: A,B

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NO.7 A food service retailer is interested in the SurePOS 500 for their ten stores. Each store has two registers.
What is the best resource to handle this customer's needs?
A. RSS ISV
B. RSS Reseller
C. IBM GBS representative
D. Retail Store Solutions (RSS) sales representative
Answer: B

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NO.8 A warehouse retailer has issued an RFP for a self checkout solution with 3 years of maintenance. They
asked for best and final pricing for 500 stores with 4 lanes each. What are two of the most important
factors to know about the competition when pricing the solution? (Choose two.)
A. market position
B. maintenance terms
C. lane configuration
D. relationship with customer
Answer: B,C

IBM   000-752 questions   000-752 answers real questions   000-752 study guide

NO.9 A sales representative is meeting with the CFO of a retailer to explain the current proposal for a new
POS system. The CFO asks the RSS representative to be prepared to justify why this project should be
funded ahead of other projects under consideration. Which two actions should the RSS representative
take to be best prepared for this discussion? (Choose two.)
A. review the ROI
B. Google the CFO's background
C. review the business value drivers
D. understand the CFO's relationship with IBM
Answer: A,C

IBM   000-752   000-752

NO.10 A customer wants to deploy a new cashier fraud loss prevention solution. What is the business value
of this solution?
A. reduces customer theft
B. reduces front-end shrink
C. improves inventory accuracy
D. improves cashier productivity
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 000-031
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Tivoli Service Automation Manager V7.2 Implementation)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 131 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 Which item defines a set of tasks to perform within a service definition?
A. Offering
B. Job Plan
C. Task Topology
D. Management Plan
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which two statements are true about the creation of a management task on the Service Definition
application? (Choose two.)
A. A new management plan must be created.
B. Only existing management tasks can be replaced.
C. The Service Definition status must be set to Design.
D. The Management Plan status must be set to Design.
E. It is possible to create a management task for an approved management plan.
Answer: CD

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NO.3 When is the Resource_Master workflow invoked?
A. before invoking the REST API
B. after the Service Request is created
C. when the user interface interaction is initiated
D. after invoking the REST API, but before the Service Request is created
Answer: B

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NO.4 How is the first management plan specified to run on creation of a new service deployment instance?
A. set the run order for the appropriate management plan to 1
B. set the status of the appropriate management plan to Primary
C. select the Initial checkbox for the appropriate management plan
D. enter the name of the appropriate management plan in the preparation workflow input
parameters section
Answer: C

IBM exam   000-031 exam   000-031

NO.5 Which step is required to include a new software product definition into a software stack?
A. for the image template software stack, click Select Action > Add Software Entry from the Software
Stacks application
B. for the image template software stack, click Select Action > Add Software Stack Entry from the
Software Products application
C. for an image template software stack or the corresponding resource pool software stack, select Add
Stack Entry from the Software Products application
D. for an image template software stack or the corresponding resource pool software stack, click Select
Action > Add Stack Entry from the Software Stacks application
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which two primary data model objects does the Service Topology application operate on? (Choose
two.)
A. Job Plan
B. TPM Workflow
C. Topology Node
D. Management Plan
E. Service Topology Node Operations
Answer: CE

IBM   000-031   000-031

NO.7 What determines the number of network interfaces that will be included in the provisioned virtual
servers?
A. subnet group
B. resource pool
C. network interfaces
D. virtual machine template
Answer: B

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NO.8 What are the components required in the steps to add an offering the Self-Service User Interface?
A. Attribute, Classification, Offering, XML File, HTML File
B. Attribute, Classification, Offering, Java Script File, HTML File
C. Attribute, Classification, Offering Image, XML File, HTML File
D. Attribute, Classification, Offering Image, Java Script File, HTML File
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which statement is true about auto-approval?
A. It is set in a configuration file.
B. It is related to an IBM Tivoli Provisioning Manager workflow.
C. It is related to an IBM Tivoli Process Automation Engine workflow.
D. It is related to IBM Tivoli Process Automation Engine and IBM Tivoli Provisioning Manager workflows.
Answer: C

IBM certification   000-031   000-031   000-031

NO.10 Which value is stored in the PMRDP.Net.VMware.SwitchTemplate configuration setting to be used by
VMWare?
A. the DCM object name of the Net Resource Pool
B. the DCM object ID of the Virtual Server Template
C. the DCM object ID of the corresponding subnetwork
D. the DCM object name of the Virtual Switch Template
Answer: D

IBM test questions   000-031 exam   000-031

NO.11 The default steps for creating a new project are: Notify the user. The Cloud Management System
processes the request. Resources are linked to a reservation. The IBM Tivoli Service Automation
Manager (TSAM) topology nodes and their attributes are updated. The TSAM virtual server node is
updated. What is the correct sequence in which these step are performed?
A. C, B, D, E, A
B. A, B, C, E, D
C. C, A, B, E, D
D. B, C, D, E, A
Answer: A

IBM demo   000-031   000-031 questions

NO.12 A Service Topology defines that a topology consists of nodes that are related to each other. What must
be associated to the node in order to identify the specific type of node and attributes?
A. Job Plan
B. Management Task
C. Classification Structure
D. Service Deployment Instance
Answer: C

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NO.13 Which three components are included in a management task? (Choose three.)
A. Status
B. Job Plan
C. Predecessors
D. Sequence Number
E. Template Job Plan
F. Topology Requirements
Answer: BCD

IBM practice test   000-031 study guide   000-031 answers real questions

NO.14 What are two methods of triggering an e-mail to be sent in IBM Tivoli Service Automation Manager?
(Choose two.)
A. using a Workflow Task
B. using the embedded e-mail client
C. using a Flow Action on a Jobplan Task
D. using the Notifications table on a Workflow Action
E. adding a Person to the Notifications tab on the offering
Answer: AD

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NO.15 What are two requirements for creating a management plan task assignment? (Choose two.)
A. Create a new service request.
B. Create a job plan specifying the task.
C. Create a TPM workflow specifying the task.
D. Set the property in the TPAE System Properties.
E. Create a service topology node operation to specify the job plan.
Answer: BE

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NO.16 Where is a Resource Allocation template required?
A. All service topology nodes require the resource allocation templates
B. Only the service topology nodes where the Min Cardinality is set to 1.
C. Only the service topology nodes where Needs Resource Allocation is set.
D. Only the service topology nodes where the Max Cardinality Unbound is set.
Answer: C

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NO.17 Which process manager product (PMP) is responsible for creating DCM objects.?
A. IBM Tivoli Release Manager
B. IBM Tivoli Provisioning Manager
C. IBM Tivoli Configuration Manager
D. IBM Tivoli Service Request Manager
Answer: B

IBM   000-031   000-031 test answers   000-031 answers real questions   000-031

NO.18 Which function ensures a Service Request is generated when a Catalog Request is submitted through
the Self-Service User Interface?
A. If the Submit to Cart Script is specified on the Offering.
B. If the Offering Type on the Offering is set to Service Request.
C. If the Service Definition Create Service Request checkbox is selected.
D. An escalation is firing in the background every 15 seconds checking to see if new catalog requests
have been submitted and if any have an Escalation Point Action.
Answer: B

IBM certification   000-031 certification training   000-031 original questions

NO.19 Provided that an Offering and a classification structure are created and activated, which step is
necessary to make the offering visible in the Self-Service User Interface?
A. add the Offering to the Service Catalog
B. register the Offering through the Self-Service User Interface
C. create the Offering in the maximo.ear enterprise archive file
D. link the Offering and classification structure to the Service Topology Node Operation
Answer: A

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NO.20 What is the correct current status before a Service Definition is usable?
A. Active
B. Approved
C. Operation
D. In Progress
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 000-137
Exam Name: IBM (Advanced Rational Application Developer v7)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 60 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 The embedded Apache Derby database makes development easier. However, it has one severe
limitation that prevents its use in production environments. What is this limitation?
A. Connection pooling is disallowed and results in degraded performance.
B. It provides a reduced data type set without the ability to define BLOB (Binary Large Object) or CLOB
(Character Large Object) columns types.
C. It provides only English language support.
D. It allows only one application to access the database to create a connection.
E. The use of the JDBC drivers is proprietary and requires a for purchase license.
Answer: D

IBM   000-137   000-137 answers real questions

NO.2 In JSP, custom tag libraries can be used to _____.
A. enable better searching in a Web application
B. package tag extensions for JSP
C. package JSPs for exporting to other projects
D. package tag extensions for JSF
Answer: B

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NO.3 What is best practice when designing a data-intensive EJB application?
A. set the values of Entity EJBs by passing them a Data Transfer object containing the necessary data
B. provide major Entity EJBs with a remote interface and relate other Entity EJBs to them via Container
Managed Relations (CMR)
C. provide all Entity EJBs with a local interface only and perform all remote access through Session EJBs
D. encapsulate frequently accessed read-only data in an Entity EJB for efficient caching
Answer: C

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NO.4 During the development process, a programmer selects an EJB project containing entity beans and
selects Prepare For Deployment. Which action does this operation perform?
A. updates the deployment descriptor with a reference to the EJB JAR
B. generates the helper classes to map entity beans to the database
C. generates the EJB JAR file and includes it in the associated enterprise application project
D. guides the user through a wizard interface to determine the mapping between the fields in the entity
bean and their associated database fields
Answer: B

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which will not be available for regular users of the application. Otherwise, the home page is identical for
administrators and regular users. A J2EE role-based security pattern is being implemented with one role
for users and one role for staff. What is the BEST way to display different versions of the home page?
A. You map the two roles to different JSPs for the home page, where one includes the extra links (for
administrators) and the other does not (for users).
B. It is not possible to display different versions of the same page for users who have different roles.
C. You apply declarative security to the body of the JSP where the links that are only available to the
administrators are declared to be accessible only to that role.
D. You implement the links using a J2EE custom library, which contains a call to isUserInRole() on the
HttpServletRequest to see if the link should be displayed or not.
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 000-552
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Optim Implementation for Distributed Systems (2009))
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Total Q&A: 129 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 You must have a password to review and change Product Options. What is the default password?
A. "null"
B. "softech"
C. "optim"
D. "ibm"
Answer: C

IBM   000-552 practice test   000-552   000-552 answers real questions

NO.2 Optim objects are saved in the Optim Directory. Which two statements are true about saving Optim
objects? (Choose two.)
A. Optim objects like Column Maps, Table Maps and Access Definitions are saved with two-part names.
B. Only Optim relationships are saved in the Optim Directory.
C. If a Column Map is noted as local, with no name, it is used only once and then discarded.
D. An Archive Request cannot be saved in the Optim Directory.
E. There may be more than one Optim object with the same name as long as they are different types of
objects.
Answer: A,E

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NO.3 What will cause a failure during an Archive Process?
A. An Optim Connect or ODBC definition does not exist for the Archive Collection.
B. An Archive File Collection already contains more than 12 Archive Files.
C. An invalid Archive File is automatically added to an Archive File Collection.
D. An Archive Process will always complete unless the gnore Errors?check box is selectedAn Archive
Process will always complete unless the ?gnore Errors?check box is selected
Answer: C

IBM   000-552   000-552 original questions

NO.4 The customer has critical production systems against which Optim archive and delete processes are
run. If Optim archive and delete processes are run at the wrong time, it will impact business. Which of the
following will resolve the issue?
A. Using the Optim Configuration program, initialize Optim Security and assign a Security Administrator.
For each role, grant or deny the appropriate privileges.
B. Configure object security, which will deny access to sensitive production objects.
C. By default, the Access Control Domain allows or denies access to particular Optim functions.
D. Configure program security to restrict access to the Optim executables.
Answer: A

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NO.5 You have installed the Optim Server on an AIX system. The system is configured with various internal
and external storage options attached to the server. Where should the Optim Temporary Work folder be
placed?
A. the attached archive appliance
B. the attached NAS device
C. the system's internal disk drives
D. the attached SAN device
Answer: C

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NO.6 Where can the Optim Directory be stored?
A. DB2 UDB for z/OS running on mainframe platform
B. SQL Server running on UNIX platform
C. DB2 LUW running on Windows, UNIX or Linux platforms
D. Microsoft Access database running on Windows platforms
Answer: C

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NO.7 You can use the silent installer in a UNIX environment to install the Optim Server. The silent installer is
NOT available for which two of the following platforms? (Choose two.)
A. HP-UX 11i v2
B. Red Hat Linux 3
C. IBM AIX 5
D. Solaris 8
E. SUSE 10
Answer: B,D

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NO.8 Given the following command-line export command: PR0CMND /EXPORT TYPE=EX NAME=%.%
Which required parameter is missing from this syntax?
A. The name of the export file is missing.
B. The name of the report file is missing.
C. The name of the Optim Directory is missing.
D. The name of the parameter file is missing.
Answer: A

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NO.9 When installing Optim, which of the following is true?
A. ODM/Optim Connect must be installed during the Optim Installation process.
B. ODM/Optim Connect must be installed after Optim is successfully installed.
C. ODM/Optim Connect can be installed either during the Optim installation, or after Optim is successfully
installed.
D. ODM/Optim Connect is not a part of the Optim Installation.
Answer: C

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NO.10 You are planning an installation of IBM Optim. Which two configurations are supported for the Optim
Server and Optim Directory? (Choose two.)
A. DB2 database running on Ubuntu Linux
B. DB2 or Oracle databases running on AIX
C. Oracle or Microsoft SQL Server databases running on AIX
D. DB2 or Informix databases running on Sun Solaris
E. DB2 or Microsoft Access databases running on Windows XP Professional
Answer: B,D

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NO.11 The Optim Directory is built in an Oracle Database. If the project Database is Unicode enabled, which of
the following is true?
A. The Optim Directory can be enabled as either Unicode or Non-Unicode.
B. The Optim Directory and the DB Alias must both be initialized the same, either both as Unicode or both
as Non-Unicode.
C. The Optim Directory and the DB Alias both must be Unicode enabled.
D. The DB Alias must be enabled as Non-Unicode.
Answer: C

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NO.12 When you specify the default minimum retention period for protecting Archive Files on a managed
storage system from deletion, when will the files be deleted?
A. When the expiration date on the Archive File has been reached, Optim issues a request to the
managed storage system to delete the file.
B. After the minimum retention period expires, the file can be deleted from Optim.
C. After the minimum retention period expires, the file can be marked deleted by the managed storage
system.
D. After the retention period is reached, the file will be automatically deleted by Optim.
Answer: C

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NO.13 Consider the following Archive file name that is defined using macros:
/home/<$USER>/archives/<MON $SEQ6>.AF Which filenames would be generated from this macro?
(Note: Assume that the file was created on Monday, February 2, 2009, by the person with the user ID of
dev3x and the last sequential number assigned was 263.)
A. /dev3x/Feb000263.AF
B. /home/dev3x/archives/MON 264.af
C. /home/dev3x/archives/Feb264.af
D. /home/dev3x/archives/MON000264.AF
Answer: D

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NO.14 You can specify the default minimum retention period for protecting Archive Files on Centera from
deletion. How is the minimum retention period calculated?
A. from the time Centera copies the file
B. from the time the Archive Process copies the file to Centera
C. from the time that the Archive Process copies the file to the local file system
D. from the time Centera copies the file from the local file system
Answer: B

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NO.15 Which databases are directly supported on distributed platforms for Optim Test Data Management?
A. DB2 LUW, Oracle, Microsoft SQL Server, Microsoft Access
B. Sybase, Informix, Progress, DB2 LUW, MySQL, Microsoft SQL Server
C. Informix, Microsoft SQL Server, Sybase, DB2 LUW, Oracle
D. Microsoft Access, MySQL, Progress, DB2 LUW, Oracle, Sybase
Answer: C

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NO.16 Click the Exhibit button.
Given the information from the Relationships tab of an Access Definition, and the associated Show Steps
report as shown in the exhibit, what is the reason that the ITEM 552.S table is listed as UNTRAVERSED?
A. Options (2) must be enabled for the relationship between DETAILS and ITEM 552.S.
B. The DETAILS table is designated as a Reference Table so all relationships are ignored for this table.
C. Options (1) must be disabled for the relationship between DETAILS and ITEM 552.S.
D. No relationship exists between ITEM 552.S and any other table.
Answer: B

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NO.17 You are installing IBM Optim into an Oracle environment. Which statement is correct about user
permissions?
A. The installation user requires the DBA role.
B. The installation user is the only user that can run Optim.
C. The installation user's permissions must be deleted once the installation is complete and all DB Aliases
are created.
D. The installation user must have the SELECT ANY DICTIONARY role.
Answer: D

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NO.18 When performing an archive process that uses a Storage Profile, which action could be performed as a
result of using the storage profile?
A. Creates a connection to the database for use by the storage management device.
B. Creates a connection to the storage management device and copies an Archive File to a backup
device.
C. Creates a storage allocation parameter for the storage or file management system.
D. Creates a duplicate of the existing information from the Archive Repository on the storage
management device.
Answer: B

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NO.19 When installing Optim, what is the minimum disk space needed for the database.?
A. 50gb
B. 50mb
C. As required
D. 500mb
Answer: C

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NO.20 Which two statements are true about Optim security roles? (Choose two.)
A. Functional Privilege classes such as Create New Actions and Create New Definitions can be controlled
using Roles.
B. Privileges such as Archive Request and Compare Request can be controlled using Roles
C. By default, the Access Control Domain allows access to all Optim Actions and privileges. Only denial of
privileges can be assigned using roles.
D. Default Roles may not be modified to allow or deny Functional Privilege Classes and New Action
Privileges.
E. Edit the FAD (File Access Definition) to control which roles has access to all of the files.
Answer: A,B

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Exam Code: 000-724
Exam Name: IBM (IBM WebSphere Commerce V7.0, System Administration)
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Total Q&A: 112 Questions and Answers
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NO.1 Users are complaining that the online store is slow. An administrator investigates and concludes there is
a performance hit due to secondary log usage. The following information is gathered from a snapshot:
Maximum secondary log space used (Bytes) = 2048 Secondary logs allocated currently = 2 The following
information is gathered from the database configuration: Log file size (4KB) (LOGFILSIZ) = 1000 Number
of primary log files (LOGPRIMARY) = 4 Number of secondary log files (LOGSECOND) = 3 Which
command will MOST likely improve the performance?
A. db2 update db cfg for mall using LOGSECOND 2
B. db2 update db cfg for mall using LOGSECOND 8
C. db2 update db cfg for mall using LOGPRIMARY 2
D. db2 update db cfg for mall using LOGPRIMARY 8
Answer: D

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NO.2 An administrator is notified that a site-level scheduled job failed. The administrator queries the
SCHACTIVE table and sees that the SCSSTATE column for the job has a status of RF. What does the
administrator need to do?
A. Restart the job.
B. Wait for the job status to be updated.
C. Verify that the JVM process in the SCSQUEUE column is running.
D. Validate the check task command assigned to the scheduled job exists.
Answer: B

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NO.3 If error notification is enabled, what is the source of the notifications?
A. ECTrace
B. ECMessage
C. Log Analyzer
D. Logging Toolkit
Answer: B

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NO.4 An administrator is loading access control policy data. The file the administrator has updated is
defaultAccessControlPolicies.xml. The administrator notices after loading the access control policy that
the main access control policy is missing. Which utility does the administrator need to run?
A. acpload
B. dataload
C. acugload
D. acpnlsload
Answer: A

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NO.5 An administrator needs to install an interim fix to the WebSphere Commerce application which is in a
clustered environment. The administrator wants the application to be available for requests during the
update. What does the administrator need to do?
A. Roll out the update.
B. Perform a silent update with response file.
C. Update the single deployment manager node.
D. Perform an interactive installation using installation manager.
Answer: A

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NO.6 The administrator needs to protect access to system resources such as file I/O and sockets. How does
the administrator accomplish this?
A. Enable Java 2 security.
B. Enable application security.
C. Enable administrative security.
D. Enable administrative and application security.
Answer: A

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NO.7 An administrator needs a store organization structure which contains a Root organization, Default
organization, Seller organization, and B2C organization. The administrator can obtain this organization
structure by publishing a:
A. supply chain store.
B. demand chain store.
C. extended sites store.
D. consumer direct store.
Answer: D

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NO.8 The IBM WebSphere Commerce instance has business audit functionality enabled. What does the
administrator need to do to view a business audit report?
A. In the IBM WebSphere Commerce Accelerator, select Store > Monitoring > Business Audit.
B. In the IBM WebSphere Commerce Accelerator, select Store > Operations > Operational Reports.
C. In the IBM WebSphere Commerce Administration Console, select Site > Monitoring > Business Audit.
D. In the IBM WebSphere Commerce Administration Console, select Store > Monitoring > Business Audit.
Answer: D

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NO.9 An administrator needs to convert an existing WebSphere Commerce instance into a federated
environment. How does the administrator federate the WebSphere Commerce application server into the
deployment manager cell?
A. Run WC_installdir/bin/config_ant.sh -DinstanceName=instance_name ReconfigureCell
B. Run WC_profiledir/bin/addNode.sh deployment_manager_host_name SOAP_port -includeapps.
C. Run WAS_installdir/bin/configureweb_server_name.sh -user configAdminUser -password
configAdminPassword.
D. In WebSphere Application Server Network Deployment Administration Console > Servers >
WebServers, select webserver1 and click Generate Plug-in.
Answer: B

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NO.10 An administrator notices database update errors during WebSphere Commerce fix pack installation.
To troubleshoot the issue, the administrator needs to check:
A. db2diag.log
B. Jdbcerr.log
C. updatelog.txt
D. updatedb-instance.log
Answer: D

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NO.11 Initial troubleshooting has indicated the initial heap size needs to be adjusted. For performance analysis,
how should the administrator set the heap sizes?
A. The initial and maximum heap sizes should be equal.
B. The initial heap size is less than maximum heap size.
C. The initial heap size 128MB and maximum heap size 256MB.
D. The initial heap size 64MB and the maximum heap size 512MB
Answer: A

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NO.12 The IBM WebSphere Commerce site is running on a single tier. What task should the administrator
have performed to prevent a total database failure?
A. Reduce database traffic.
B. Setup Database Replication
C. Setup Staging server to copy the production data.
D. Federate WebSphere Commerce instance into WebSphere Application Server Network Deployment.
Answer: B

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NO.13 An administrator is configuring JVM heap settings for WebSphere Commerce in a 64 bit environment.
As a starting value, the administrator plans to set the following: Minimum Nursery size: 512 MB Maximum
nursery size: 1024 MB What JVM parameters does the administrator need to add, to enable these values?
A. -Xlp512M -Xlp1024M
B. -Xmn512M -Xmx1024M
C. -Xmns512m -Xmnx1024m
D. -Xmnys512MB -Xmnyx1024MB
Answer: C

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NO.14 The WebSphere Commerce Performance Monitoring Infrastructure (PMI) module has been disabled.
The administrator can enable the WebSphere Commerce PMI module from the:
A. Tivoli Performance Viewer
B. PMI > server1 > Runtime.
C. WebSphere Commerce configuration file.
D. WebSphere Commerce Administrative Console > Monitoring
Answer: C

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NO.15 An administrator needs to delete all processed sale transactions that are older than 90 days. Which
command does the administrator need to use on the demo instance?
A. dbclean -object order -type completed -instancexml
WebSphere/Commerce/instances/demo/xml/demo.xml -days 90
B. dbclean -object order -type obsolete -instancexml
WebSphere/Commerce/instances/demo/xml/demo.xml -days 90
C. dbclean -object catentry -type completed -instancexml
WebSphere/Commerce/instances/demo/xml/demo.xml -days 90
D. dbclean -object catentry -type obsolete -instancexml
WebSphere/Commerce/instances/demo/xml/demo.xml -days 90
Answer: A

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NO.16 An administrator is configuring a company's IBM WebSphere Commerce site to implement the
Payment Card Industry (PCI) Data Security Standard (DSS) requirement to protect cardholder data. A
decision has been made to prevent storing of the card security code in the database. What action does
the administrator need to take?
A. Set neverPersist to true in PaymentSystemPluginMapping.xml.
B. Set systemEditable to true in PaymentSystemPluginMapping.xml.
C. Set systemEditable to true in PaymentMethodConfigurations.xml.
D. Set removeAfterApproval to true in PaymentSystemPluginMapping.xml.
Answer: A

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NO.17 An administrator just installed WebSphere Commerce and published a B2C store. However, the
performance of the store is poor. How must the administrator customize the default installation
configuration to improve the site performance?
A. Enable disk offload.
B. Enable Dynamic caching.
C. Increase the number of cache entries.
D. Update cachespec.xml for the store.
Answer: D

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NO.18 An administrator is creating several user accounts with passwords. What hashing scheme is used to
protect the contents of the password?
A. AHS-2
B. PCI-3
C. RPC-1
D. SHA-1
Answer: D

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NO.19 An administrator needs to configure attributes that are synchronized between the LDAP server and the
IBM WebSphere Commerce database. To do so, the administrator needs to edit:
A. vmmTasks.xml
B. ldapentry.xml
C. enableldap.xml
D. LdapConfig.properties
Answer: B

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NO.20 A sports retailer interested in IBM WebSphere Commerce has a large customer service department.
They are interested in using IBM Sales Center for IBM WebSphere Commerce. Which editions of IBM
WebSphere Commerce allow them to do so?
A. Enterprise and Professional
B. Enterprise and Developer Express
C. Express and Professional
D. Express and Developer Professional
Answer: A

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