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Exam Code: 000-563

Exam Name: IBM (IBM Tivoli Directory Integrator V7.1)

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NO.1 A company's business requirements state that real-time changes must be synchronized from an IBM
LDAP directory to an RDBMS database. Which Connector is required to feed data in to the
AssemblyLine?
A. JNDI Connector
B. FileSystem Connector
C. LDAP Server Connector
D. IBM Tivoli Directory Server Change Log Connector
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which two options are available in AssemblyLine (AL) settings? (Choose two.)
A. view AL statistics
B. select the Property Store to use
C. configure Null Behavior at the AL level
D. define default error handling for the AL
E. set the AL pool size when Server mode is in use
Answer: C,E

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NO.3 Where does the Delta Engine store the snapshots it takes of data being iterated?
A. Work Entry
B. Conn Object
C. System Store
D. System Queue
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which three IBM Tivoli Directory Integrator V7.1 components can be used in an AssemblyLine?
(Choose three.)
A. Script
B. Compiler
C. Connector
D. Protocol Bridge
E. Lexical Analyzer
F. Function Component
Answer: A,C,F

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NO.5 What is the unit of work in IBM Tivoli Directory Integrator V7.1?
A. Project
B. Connector
C. System Store
D. AssemblyLine
Answer: D

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NO.6 What are two different ways to start an AssemblyLine (AL) with parameters from another AL? (Choose
two.)
A. AssemblyLine Parser
B. AssemblyLine Launcher
C. AssemblyLine Connector
D. AssemblyLine Loop Component
E. AssemblyLine Function Component
Answer: C,E

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NO.7 What is an Initial Work Entry?
A. It logs information about an initial error code.
B. It is an entry passed to an AssemblyLine when it is started.
C. It is the first entry retrieved from the Connector in Iterator mode.
D. It is used during initialization of the Administration and Monitoring Console.
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which statement is true for Server mode?
A. It is similar to the Delta mode.
B. It can be used in the Flow Section of the AssemblyLine.
C. It is used to play back a recorded AssemblyLine execution.
D. It binds to some resource (like an IP port), accepts client connections, processes incoming data, and
returns a response to the client.
Answer: D

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NO.9 AssemblyLines can be monitored using which two methods? (Choose two.)
A. System Store
B. Changelog Connectors
C. Server mode Connectors
D. command line utility tdisrvctl
E. Administration and Monitoring Console
Answer: D,E

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NO.10 Which two IBM Tivoli Directory Integrator V7.1 components are used to control AssemblyLine flow?
(Choose two.)
A. Else Branch
B. Attribute Map
C. Fail-over Node
D. Connector Loop
E. Aggregator Loop
Answer: A,D

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NO.11 Which three platforms support IBM Tivoli Directory Integrator V7.1? (Choose three.)
A. AIX
B. HP/UX
C. Android
D. OS/400
E. System z
F. Mac OS X
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.12 Which two statements are true about one AssemblyLine (AL1) starting another AssemblyLine (AL2) in
IBM Tivoli Directory
Integrator V7.1 (TDI)? (Choose two.)
A. Both ALs can run at the same time.
B. Both ALs must be part of the same TDI Project.
C. Both ALs must be running on the same TDI Server.
D. The Task Call Block is used to pass in parameters and data.
E. If AL2 is started using script calls then it runs at a higher priority.
Answer: A,D

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NO.13 What are two uses for a Server mode Connector? (Choose two.)
A. to implement a web service
B. to intercept LDAP bind requests
C. to run AssembyLines in Simulation mode
D. to run multiple AssembyLines simultaneously
E. to enable First Failure Data Capture in AssemblyLines
Answer: A,B

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NO.14 Which Connector mode can be used in the AssemblyLine Feed section?
A. Delta
B. Iterator
C. Updat
D. AddOnly
Answer: B

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NO.15 Which two statements are true regarding a Task Call Block (TCB)? (Choose two.)
A. It is used for deleting an entry in Delete mode.
B. It is used by a caller to set a number of parameters for an AssemblyLine (AL).
C. It contains information about AL exceptions and error codes.
D. It is a Search (criteria) object used by ALs and Connectors to specify a generic search criteria.
E. It can provide a list of input or output parameters specified by an AL, including operation codes defined
in theOperations tab of the AL.
Answer: B,E

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NO.16 Which statement is true for the Action Manager?
A. It updates the Work Entry.
B. It can send an Initial Work Entry to an AssemblyLine.
C. It is a command line utility used for importing certificates.
D. It executes rules that are configured using the Administration and Monitoring Console.
Answer: D

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NO.17 What is a valid component in an AssemblyLine?
A. Script
B. Method
C. Procedure
D. Subroutine
Answer: A

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NO.18 Which connector type must be used to access an LDAP LDIF file?
A. JNDI Connector
B. LDIF Connector
C. LDAP Connector D. File System Connector
Answer: D

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NO.19 Which two statements are true for the IBM Tivoli Directory Integrator V7.1 Entry Object? (Choose two.)
A. It analyzes and correlates events.
B. It can represent a single database row.
C. It acts as a client to a connected system.
D. It can be manipulated directly from Hook scripts.
E. It is used to encode a byte stream during read and write operations.
Answer: B,D

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NO.20 Which two statements are true about an AssemblyLine (AL)? (Choose two.)
A. An AL with an empty Feed section can do work.
B. An AL must have at least one component in the Flow section.
C. All ALs run in sequence, each one starting when the previous one shuts down.
D. The Recycle Execution mode ensures that an AL is re-launched if it terminates.
E. The Feed section acts like a loop and cycles the Flow section components once for each available
entry.
Answer: A,E

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Exam Code: 000-M98

Exam Name: IBM (IBM Unica NetInsight Technical Mastery Test v1)

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NO.1 If you want to know how recently and frequently visitors have triggered events on your site, you would
use which type of report?
A. Event Analysis report
B. Page Visit report
C. Trend report
D. Trigger report
Answer: A

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NO.2 Auto-updating means which of the following.?
A. A report is updated every time a profile is updated.
B. IBM Unica NetInsight software is updated automatically.
C. A process that applies only to standard reports, not custom reports.
D. Profile data is removed and replaced with updated data.
Answer: A

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NO.3 If a report has more than one dimension, you can change the order that the dimensions display in the
data area by doing which of the following?
A. Change the dimension to a metric.
B. Click and drag the dimension column header to a new position.
C. Delete the dimension and redefine it.
D. The display order cannot be changed.
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 000-G01

Exam Name: IBM (IBM EMEA Maintenance and Technical Support Mastery Test v1)

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NO.1 How does MTS deliver its value in reducing the outage duration?
A. Highly trained hardware service reps (SSRs) to handle the client's call
B. Dedicated team of professionals who know the client's environment
C. Experience in managing complex problems - particularly multi vendor
D. All of the above
Answer: D

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NO.2 What is the single most important differentiator of the IBM SWMA?
A. The price is very low
B. It covers all software on System x
C. It is Software Support for non-IBM products only
D. It is a bundled offering for Support and Subscription of IBM Software Products
Answer: D

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NO.3 What is a CRU?
A. A part that is designed to be safe and simple to replace
B. Circuit Resistor Union
C. Customer Replaceable Unit
D. A and C
Answer: D

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NO.4 What two Premium Maintenance Services offerings are offered ideally on top of a Base Maintenance
Support?
A. SupportLine and Microcode Support
B. ServicePac and Harddrive Retention
C. Software Support Extension and SupportLine
D. Service Upgrade and Committed Services
Answer: D

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NO.5 What are the factors to calculate the benefit of a reduced outage duration?
A. "Monthly value of a project", "Hourly resource cost", "Number of outages impacted"
B. "Hourly Outage Cost", "Reduced Outage Time", "Number of outages impacted"
C. "Hourly Outage Cost", "Reduced Outage Time", "Monthly value of a project"
D. "Hourly resource cost", "Reduced Outage Time", "Number of outages impacted"
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which of the answer(s) is(are) among the ETS Service Elements?
A. Remote Account Advocate Team, Review Calls
B. Performance tuning Service
C. Microcode change offering, Onsite Account Advocate (option)
D. Critical Situation management, Fix-time commitment for Software problems
Answer: A

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NO.7 What do you want from call preparation?
A. Identify the desired outcomes for the call
B. Identify next steps
C. Identify how to handle difficult areas
D. All of the above
Answer: D

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NO.8 What are the factors used in the algorithm to calculate the benefit of reduced problem-handling
resources?
A. "Amount of resource reallocated to strategic project", "Hourly resource cost"
B. "Monthly value of a project", "Hourly resource cost"
C. "Monthly value of a project", "Hourly Outage Cost"
D. "Hourly Outage Cost", "Amount of resource reallocated to strategic project"
Answer: A

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NO.9 The prerequisite for every sale is?
A. The customer must have a business need for the service
B. The customer must know that they have that need
C. The customer must feel that addressing that need is a priority
D. All of the above
Answer: D

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NO.10 What defines Client Value.?
A. Superior Service
B. Server downtime
C. Business Value, Cost and a client's beliefs and assumptions
D. IBM MTS's unique services, features, and functions
Answer: C

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NO.11 What distinguishes ServicePac Essentials from other ServicePac's?
A. Support for multiple machines is combined in ServicePac Essentials and Virtualized Essentials
B. ServicePac Essentials combine several service offerings into one ServicePac
C. In addition to maintenance ServicePac Essentials commit IBM to perform a service within a given time
D. They offer only essential Maintenance, nothing else
Answer: B

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NO.12 What does the abbreviation SWMA stand for?
A. It stands for Software Marketing
B. It means Software Maintenance
C. It is the acronym for Skills With Most Acceptance
D. It stands for Swap Mail
Answer: B

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NO.13 What is the objective of the Explore phase (ERIC Questioning Framework)?
A. Understand the priorities of the client
B. Understand the linkage between the IT and the business
C. Uncover and expand topics of interest
D. All of the above
Answer: D

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NO.14 What are the rules for good questioning?
A. Give the customer a lecture about the benefits of MTS
B. Roll multiple questions into one long, rambling question
C. Do not ask reconfirming and clarification questions
D. Keep your questions short and simple
Answer: D

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NO.15 What are some of the highlights of the IBM MTSS solution?
A. Alleviates the management burden on IT and is helping to free up resources for more strategic tasks
B. IBM provides inventory, reporting and invoice management
C. Provides a comprehensive IT management solution for the client's whole IT infrastructure
D. All of the above
Answer: D

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NO.16 How does MTS deliver its value in Outage Prevention?
A. Proactive hardware services, "client-advocate" services, Harddrive Retention
B. Proactive hardware services, "client-advocate" services, access to information across multiple vendors
C. Proactive hardware services, ServicePac services, access to information across multiple vendors
D. Hardware Service Upgrade, "client-advocate" services, access to information across multiple vendors
Answer: B

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NO.17 Where is ETS positioned within the MTS offering portfolio?
A. Base Warranty
B. Base Maintenance
C. IBM Committed Services
D. IBM Business Critical Services
Answer: D

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NO.18 What is the objective of the Confirm phase (ERIC Questioning Framework)?
A. Leave the specifics of the next call open to have room to add other products
B. Find out if any areas of disagreement exist
C. Explore and reflect on potential MTS solutions
D. Confirm you priorities
Answer: B

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NO.19 What does the abbreviation "ERIC" stand for?
A. Error Recovery Interface Coupler
B. Empathy, Read between the lines, Intelligent Questioning, Control
C. Emotion, Refine, Integrate, Collaborate
D. Explore, Refine, Influence and Confirm
Answer: D

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NO.20 What are potential proof points for MTS services and references you can use?
A. Describe your proof points and references in general terms
B. General industry stories
C. Understand what is relevant to your client and describe your proof points and references in those terms
D. MTS Product Information - General information on service delivery issues
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 000-281

Exam Name: IBM (Foundations of IBM Cloud Computing Architecture V2)

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NO.1 A customer wants to deploy a private cloud that takes advantage of unused computer resources within
their data center. Which IBM solution should be discussed with this customer?
A. IBM CloudBurst
B. IBM Workload Deployer
C. IBM Service Delivery Manager
D. IBM Tivoli Provisioning Manager
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which feature of the IBM Cloud Computing Reference Architecture V2 allows for cloud computing
engineers to feel comfortable that their environment includes people management for security?
A. security policy and entitlement
B. security tools based on hardware flexibility
C. customizable security scripts for the cloud computing environment
D. strong encryption and passwords enabling security hardening of the whole environment
Answer: A

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NO.3 How can cloud computing environments save energy?
A. All hardware devices must have the ENERGY STAR global mark of energy efficiency.
B. All cloud environments must be installed in a data center certified by the local energy regulation
authorities.
C. There are no physical servers in a cloud environment so there are no capital expenditure costs to rack
and store physical servers in the data center.
D. Because they use virtualization techniques to separate the software from the characteristics of physical
servers, certain costly energy features such as multiple power supplies are dropped.
Answer: D

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NO.4 A company has a requirement for image management but also requires shared application server
clusters to ensure application resiliency. Which solution can meet both requirements?
A. IBM Virtual Machine Manager
B. IBM Tivoli Provisioning Manager
C. IBM WebSphere Virtual Enterprise
D. IBM WebSphere Application Accelerator
Answer: C

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NO.5 Aside from using the common Web transports, Web services also require which component?
A. load balancing servers
B. multiple browser support
C. provisioning tools to deploy Web images
D. a common language for the data exchanged
Answer: D

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NO.6 What is a main difference Between cloud computing and clustering?
A. clustering includes fixed resources
B. cloud computing includes fixed resources
C. cloud computing always includes clustering
D. clustering always includes cloud computing
Answer: A

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NO.7 What are two requirements for creating a cloud computing environment? (Choose two.)
A. data center
B. virtualization
C. public network
D. private network
E. dedicated storage
Answer: A,B

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NO.8 The three common layers of cloud computing are Application, Platform, and Infrastructure. What are
the two optional layers?
A. Client and Server
B. Session and Server
C. Network and Server
D. Network and Session
Answer: A

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NO.9 A customer has heard a lot about Amazon and their EC2 offering. Which comparable IBM offering
should be discussed with this customer.?
A. IBM CloudBurst
B. IBM Workload Deployer
C. IBM SmartCloud Enterprise
D. IBM Service Delivery Manager
Answer: C

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NO.10 What differentiates cloud computing from utility computing?
A. Cloud computing is public oriented while utility computing is more privately oriented.
B. Cloud computing is detail oriented while utility computing is more high level and general.
C. Cloud computing is about technical details while utility computing is about time to market.
D. Cloud computing is seen more technically oriented while utility computing is more accounting oriented
Answer: D

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NO.11 Which critical business process must be reviewed to automate cloud services?
A. approval process
B. monitoring process
C. charge back process
D. change management process
Answer: A

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NO.12 If security is the primary concern, which type of cloud infrastructure is best suited for multi-client
environments?
A. hybrid cloud environment
B. private cloud environment
C. multi-tenancy architecture
D. multi-instance architecture
Answer: D

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NO.13 Which Information Technology Infrastructure Library ITIL v3 volume addresses the part of the life cycle
where the services and value are actually directly delivered; and this volume also considers monitoring of
problems and balance between service reliability and cost?
A. ITIL Service Design
B. ITIL Service Strategy
C. ITIL Service Operation
D. ITIL Service Transition
Answer: C

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NO.14 A large enterprise is experiencing considerable cost increases in supplying physical hardware to their
application development team primarily for testing. They are looking to virtualize most of their test lab
requirements but at this time they do not have any virtualization technology, middleware, or hardware
capable to support such a service. They would also like a system that includes provisioning request
management with multi-level approval capabilities. They also need a solution that can be up and running
as quickly as possible.
Which IBM cloud solution offering is best suited for this client scenario?
A. IBM CloudBurst
B. IBM Service Delivery Manager
C. IBM Tivoli Provisioning Manager
D. IBM Tivoli Service Automation Manager
Answer: A

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NO.15 Where are Web services published?
A. XML registry
B. UDDI registry
C. HTTP registry
D. WSDL registry
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 000-218

Exam Name: IBM (IBM Sterling B2B Integrator V5.2, Solution Implementation )

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NO.1 IBM Sterling B2B Integrator (SBI) uses a certificate to encrypt persisted documents. If this certificate
needs to be replaced with a deployment specific certificate, which certificate store is the new certificate
imported into before updating the certificate name in the customer overrides property file?
A. CA
B. Trusted
C. System
D. Certificate
Answer: C

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NO.2 Of the locations where persistence levels can be set, which has the highest precedence?
A. Global
B. System
C. Trading Partner
D. Business Process (BP) Definition
Answer: D

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NO.3 IBM Sterling B2B Integrator (SBI) is installed with a LDAP connection to allow users to log in using
their username/password stored in the LDAP server. A user is created in SBI as a local user and the
InternalUser password policy is specified. The InternalUser policy states that the password has to be
changed every 30 days. After 29 days the SBI security administrator deletes the InternalUser policy from
the system. When the user logs in two days later, will the user be prompted to change the password?
A. Yes, because of the configuration of the original password policy.
B. No, because the policy is deleted so the user has no password policy.
C. The user will not be logged in because there is no valid policy specified.
D. No, the policy is irrelevant since the password is managed by the LDAP server.
Answer: B

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NO.4 The system default for the amount of time a Business Process (BP) remains online in the system is set
to five days. How can that value be overridden?
A. Update noapp.properties.
B. Modify the lifespan setting for a BP.
C. Update with the Performance Tuning wizard.
D. Create a new Retention Service configuration.
Answer: B

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NO.5 A developer has created a Business Process (BP) that uses the File System Adapter to write a file to the
file system. Where should the target file name be stored in the BP so that the File System Adapter can
retrieve it?
A. Primary Data
B. Process Data
C. Primary Document
D. Process Document
Answer: B

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NO.6 Based on the screen shot, how many days will documents and other trackable data stay in the system
by default?
A. 1 dayA.1 day
B. 2 daysB.2 days
C. 3 daysC.3 days
D. The setting is controlled at the individual Business Process (BP) level.
D.The setting is controlled at the individual Business Process (BP) level.
Answer: C

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NO.7 A customer has deployed a two node active-active IBM Sterling B2B Integrator (SBI) cluster in the
secure zone on two servers. The customer has installed two servers in the DMZ for the purpose of
installing remote SBI Perimeter Servers to facilitate communications with external partners. External
partners will connect to an external IP Load Balancer that will distribute inbound FTP/S, SFTP and HTTP
Client sessions across the Perimeter Servers. The customer requirement is that if any single server fails,
all the other SBI nodes and remote Perimeter Server instances must continue to activelyThe customer.?
requirement is that if any single server fails, all the other SBI nodes and remote Perimeter Server
instances must continue to actively handle inbound sessions for each protocol. What is the minimum
number of remote Perimeter Server instances that must be deployed in the DMZ?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 12
Answer: C

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NO.8 A company is planning to offer FTPS connection to its community of trading partners. They already
have one server certificate in IBM Sterling B2B Integrator (SBI) that they want to use for the FTPS server
in the production environment. In the development environment they want to use a self-signed test
certificate. Where can the test certificate be created?
A. Trading Partner > Digital Certificates > CA
B. Trading Partner > Digital Certificates > Trusted
C. Trading Partner > Digital Certificates > System
D. Trading Partner > Digital Certificates > Cert Manager
Answer: C

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NO.9 A company wants to change their document storage to file system storage for a IBM Sterling B2B
Integrator (SBI) cluster deployment. Which configuration needs to exist?
A. with a shared file system mounted as /FS: document_dir.jdbc.properties=/shared
defaultDocumentStorageType.jdbc.properties=FS
B. with a shared file system mounted as /FS: document_dir.jdbc.properties=/FS
defaultDocumentStorageType.jdbc.properties=shared
C. with a shared file system mounted as /shared: document_dir.jdbc.properties=/FS
defaultDocumentStorageType.jdbc.properties=FS
D. with a shared file system mounted as /shared: document_dir.jdbc.properties=/shared
defaultDocumentStorageType.jdbc.properties=FS
Answer: D

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NO.10 A company allows trading partners to send files to it via SFTP. Which port needs to be configured on
the SFTP Server adapter to define the communication port?
A. Data Port
B. Send Port
C. Listen Port
D. Passive Port
Answer: C

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NO.11 A company requires FTP users to be unable to login after five failed login attempts. How can this be
accomplished?
A. Create a Lockout Policy.
B. Configure the FTP user account.
C. Configure a LoginPolicy service configuration.
D. Add an entry to customer_overrides.properties.
Answer: A

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NO.12 A company has set up an adapter Container JVM to increase performance and reliability. Which three
server adapters are available to be used with the container? (Choose three.)
A. Connect:Direct
B. FTP
C. HTTPS
D. JMS
E. OFTP
F. SMTP
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.13 What would cause the IBM Sterling B2B Integrator (SBI) database size to continually grow and thus
impact performance?
A. persistence level set to FULL
B. improperly sized database connection pools
C. index, archive, and purge services not running
D. incorrect number of database threads assigned
Answer: C

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NO.14 A Business Process (BP) implementer wants to use the Document Keyword Replace Service in the
Graphical Process Modeler (GPM) but the service is not showing in the All Services stencil. What needs
to be done to make the Document Keyword Replace Service show in the GPM?
A. Update the license file.
B. Create a service configuration.
C. Execute install3rdParty.sh/.cmd.
D. Add JavaTask to adapters.properties.
Answer: B

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NO.15 Given the following information from the servers.properties file:
noapp=/home/SBI/properties/noapp.properties jboss=/home/SBI/properties/noapp.properties
jdbcService=/home/SBI/properties/jdbc.properties
jdbcServiceCustomer=/home/SIB/properties/jdbc_customer.properties
si_config=/home/SBI/properties/sandbox.cfg
customer_overrides=/home/SBI/properties/customer_overrides.properties
filesystem=/home/SBI/properties/filesystem.properties
The customer would like to change the default directory to store on-disk documents to a new directory.
How should this override be configured in the system?
A. Edit sandbox.cfg and add document_dir=<new directory full path>.
B. Edit filesystem.properties and add filesystem.document_dir=<new directory full path>.
C. Edit customer_overrides.properties and add jdbcService.document_dir=<new directory full path>.
D. Edit jdbc_customer.properties and add jdbcServiceCustomer.document_dir=<new directory full path>.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 000-582

Exam Name: IBM (IBM FileNet Business Process Manager V5.1 )

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NO.1 Which interchangeable format allows you to easily transfer and deploy multiple related workflows
between environments and is supported by FileNet BPM 5.1?
A. XPDL
B. BPEL
C. WSDL
D. BPMN
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which two are mandatory steps when providing a web service via FileNet BPM? (Choose two.)
A. Publish the web service to a WSRR Registry
B. Specify the Partner Link and Port Definition in the Workflow Properties.
C. Specify the malfunction workflow map to use for faults and exceptions.
D. Add one Receive step and optional Reply Steps to the Workflow Definition.
E. Import the WSDL (Web Services Definition Language) file for the service into the workflow definition.
Answer: B,D

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NO.3 In order to create custom application interfaces without application programming, which two tools
could be used? (Choose two.)
A. IBM Lotus Forms
B. IBM FileNet eForms
C. IBM Enterprise Records
D. Java Step processor template
E. HTML Step processor template
Answer: A,B

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NO.4 How do you define a web service end point in a workflow?
A. Using Partner Links
B. Using XML Data Fields
C. Using Component Queues
D. Using Workflow Data Fields
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which two IBM FileNet out of the box application components allow implementation of FileNet BPM
user interfaces? (Choose two.)
A. Workplace
B. Workplace XT
C. Process Administrator
D. IBM Enterprise Records
E. Process Configuration Console
Answer: A,B

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NO.6 What administration tools can be used to export FileNet objects from one environment to another?
A. FileNet Enterprise Manager and Process Task Manager
B. Process Configuration Console and Process Administrator
C. Process Configuration Console and Process Task Manager
D. FileNet Enterprise Manager and Process Configuration Console
Answer: D

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NO.7 A Business Analyst has defined business rules in the ILOG Business Rules Management System
(BRMS) and deployed it as a web service. How would you integrate these rules into the workflow?
A. Use the WaitForCondition system function
B. Enable System Messages in Process Configuration Console
C. Implement the rules using Conditional routes specified on a step
D. Use an invoke system instruction to consume this ILOG rules web service
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which two Web Services registry service options are supported by FileNet Process Designer?
(Choose two.)
A. RMI
B. UDDI
C. WSDL
D. WSRR
E. Partner Link
Answer: B,D

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NO.9 You are installing a Process Engine server that will be a part of an IBM Case Manager installation. What
is a requirement for the Process Engine installation?
A. The Process Engine can only have one virtual server.
B. IBM Case Manager and Process Engine must be on the same server.
C. The Content Engine and Process Engine must be on the same server.
D. You must use the same database for both the Content Engine and Process Engine.
Answer: D

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NO.10 A developer in your organization has created a custom HTML Step Processor which they would like to
use for a subset of approval tasks in a business process. What must the System Administrator do before
the new Step Processor can be used in the business processes?
A. Configure the Step Processor in the Process Task Manager (PTM).
B. Define the HTML step processor's parameters in the Process Designer.
C. Configure the Step Processor in the Process Configuration Console (PCC).
D. Define a java class which contains the HTML step processor's associated business logic.
Answer: C

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NO.11 How do you configure multiple Component Managers to access the same Component Queues?
A. Create exact replicas of Component Manager instances on the same host accessing the same
component queues.
B. Create exact replicas of Component Manager instances on different hosts accessing the same
component queues.
C. Create the Component Manager instances each with a different Service User name to access the
same component queues.
D. Create duplicates of the Component Queues and have each Component Manager point to a copy of
the component queue.
Answer: C

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NO.12 Which statement is correct regarding Step Processors?
A. Java Step Processors require a 3rd party security certificate.
B. For each Step Processor created an associated Launch Processor much be created.
C. A workflow can use either HTML Step Processors or Java Step Processors, not a combination of both.
D. HTML Step Processors do not require the downloading of the Process Engine API jar files to the user's
workstation.
Answer: D

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NO.13 There is a need to generate the Case Analyzer reports based on fields in the workflow. Which two
configuration steps are required to do this.? (Choose two.)
A. Configure the Case Analyzer pruning schedule
B. Expose the workflow fields in the Process Engine Event Log
C. Expose the workflow fields in all queues associated with the workflow
D. Expose the workflow fields in the Roster associated with the workflow
E. Create new data fields in Case Analyzer based on these workflow fields
Answer: B,E

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NO.14 A client application gets a message that a work item is locked by a user who no longer works at the
company. How do you unlock the work item?
A. Work items can only be unlocked by the owner of the lock.
B. Use Process Configuration Console to initialize the isolated region
C. Use vwspy to create a new user with the same name as the original lock owner, then unlock the work
item.
D. Login to the the Process Administrator UI as a member of the Process Engine Administrator Group,
query for the work item, select the item and use the context menu to unlock it.
Answer: D

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NO.15 A workflow step has multiple outgoing paths, and there is a routing condition on each path. The routing
conditions are based on workflow data field values. How does the Process Engine route a work item when
it is dispatched from that workflow step, but its data fields do not fulfill any of the routing conditions?
A. The work item is terminated.
B. The work item goes to the Conductor queue.
C. The work item takes the first path in the routing order.
D. The work item stays at the same workflow step after being dispatched.
Answer: A

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NO.16 As your role as a Technical Advisor in a large banking project you have noticed there is a high
percentage of workflow and steps that are candidates for reuse. Which FileNet BPM feature can be used
to ensure consistent processing across related workflows, and establish a more modular implementation
of your business process application?
A. Workflow submaps
B. Workflow collections
C. Workflow inheritance
D. FileNet Process Designer
Answer: C

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NO.17 Which two adaptors are supported by IBM FileNet P8 Business Process Manager out-of-the-box?
(Choose two.)
A. C#
B. Java
C. JMS
D. .NET
E. TIBCO
Answer: B,C

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NO.18 Where in a workflow policy configuration do you choose which pages of an ITX form template are
available for each step in a workflow?
A. Define Step Maps, Map Form Fields
B. Define Step Maps, Advanced Options, Page options
C. Define Step Maps, Advanced Options, Form Options
D. Define Step Maps, Advanced Options, Region Layout
Answer: B

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NO.19 You are installing a Process Engine server that will be a part of an IBM Case Manager installation. What
configuration setting must be set to establish the connection between an object store and an isolated
region for IBM Case Manager?
A. A Region id must be created in the object store.
B. The Runtime Options tab must be configured in Process Configuration Console.
C. A symbolic link between the object store and the isolated region must be created.
D. The IBM Case Manager server host name must be specified on the Server Connections tab on the
Process Engine Process Task Manager.
Answer: C

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NO.20 In the following scenario the 'Approve Loan' step is performed by the 'loan_officer_group' group.
What would be the result of launching this workflow with a 'loan_amount' of $200,000?
A. The 'Approve Loan' step will be routed to Olivia for processing.
B. The 'Approve Loan' step will be routed to Oscar for processing.
C. A malfunction will occur, you can only assign users to workflow groups when the workflow launches.
D. An error will occur, the users must be assigned to the workflow group in the step before the 'Approve
Loan' step.
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 000-M246

Exam Name: IBM (IBM Smarter Commerce Sales Mastery Test v1)

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NO.1 Segmentation, offer management, interaction history, real-time behavioral targeting, and contact
optimization are examples of capabilities delivered as part of what.?
A. Data mining.
B. Social platform.
C. Central decisioning.
D. Customer clustering.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Smarter Commerce is focused on which of the following 3 dimensions with respect to the customer?
A. Customer potential, customer transaction capture, customer fulfillment.
B. Customer insight, customer value strategy, customer & partner engagement.
C. Customer demographics, customer geography, customer affluence.
D. Customer returns, customer purchases, customer order changes.
Answer: B

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NO.3 Smarter Commerce capabilities are packaged and delivered as what?
A. A single, high-value, shrink-wrapped, solution for commerce.
B. Middleware components requiring additional business function software.
C. Software, hardware, and services to deliver specific business processcapabilities which support each
phase of the commerce cycle.
D. A simple monolithic application for each phase of the commerce cycle.
Answer: A

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NO.4 You can create a powerful self-service experience for the customer using?
A. The IBM Customer Experience Suite
B. The IBM Commerce Framework
C. The IBM Enterprise Service Process Manager
D. The IBM Customer Service System
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 00M-238

Exam Name: IBM (IBM Commerce Solutions Selling/Order Mgmt Sales Mastery Test v1 )

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NO.1 IBM Sterling CPQ has customers in many different verticals. Which combination of verticals reflects
most accurately, the CPQ customers.?
A. Manufacturing, High Tech, Communication/Media/Entertainment, LifeScience, and Education.
B. Communication/Media/Entertainment/ LifeScience, High Tech, Pharma, Consumer.
C. LifeScience, Manufacturing, Construction, Communication/Media/Entertainment/ Consumer.
D. Manufacturing, High Tech, Communication/Media/Entertainment/ LifeScience, Consumer.
Answer: D

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NO.2 IBM Sterling OM provides a single order repository that enables a user to modify, update or track all
orders real-time for what type of channel?
A. Field Sales
B. Retail Store
C. Call Center
D. Any combination of channels.
Answer: D

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NO.3 The ability to have multiple quotes assigned to a single opportunity enables sales people to
________________.
A. find the optimal price point of a quote
B. handle approvals of quotes
C. make quote negotiations more effective since alternative quotes can be presented to a prospect
D. Both A and B.
Answer: C

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NO.4 IBM Sterling Configurator can be integrated with other applications. What specific characteristic makes
it easy to accomplish such integrations?
A. Configurator engine design is based on open standards such as XML and JAV
B. Configurator engine has great performance and scalability characteristics.
C. Configurator engine is a stateless engine.
D. All of the above.
Answer: B

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NO.5 How do today s customers interact with a brand?
A. Customers expect the brand to provide a seamless and consistent cross-channel experience.
B. Customers expect a dedicated and independent system for each channel for more focused service.
C. Customers are increasing using only a single channel for all their interactions.
D. None of the above.
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 000-590

Exam Name: IBM (IBM Tivoli Storage Manager V6.3 Implementation)

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NO.1 Which command configures the Disaster Recovery Manager to expire old database backup volumes?
A. DBBACKUPPRUNEDAYS
B. EXPIREDBBACKUP DAYS
C. SET DRMDBEXPIRATION DAYS
D. SET DRMDBBACKUPEXPIREDAYS
Answer: D

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NO.2 Where is the schedlogname option changed?
A. In the client options file
B. In the server options file
C. In the Administration Center
D. At the operating system command prompt
Answer: A

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NO.3 The customer's Service Level Agreement states that the network attached storage (NAS) filer should
be protected so that a single file restore is possible. What prerequisite must be met so that a network data
management protocol backup with a Table of Content (TOC) is possible?
A. A TOC storage pool must be available.
B. The server option toc=always must be set.
C. The client option single file restore=yes must be defined
D. A management class with copygroup value tocdestination must be available and assigned.
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which application can be used to gather and analyze performance data about backup and restore
operations for an IBM Tivoli Storage Manager client?
A. Information Center
B. Administration Center
C. Tivoli Data Warehouse
D. IBM Tivoli Enterprise Console
Answer: B

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NO.5 An administrator is upgrading an IBM Tivoli Storage Manager Server from V6.2to V6.3. Which file
cannot be recreated if the V6.2 database is damaged?
A. the client options file
B. the server options file
C. the volume hi story file
D. the device configuration file
Answer: C

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NO.6 What is the default install directory for the IBM Tivoli Storage Manager V6.3 Windows client?
A. Program Files\TSM|install
B. Program Files (X86)|Tivoli|TSM
C. Program Files\Tivoli\TSM\config
D. Program Files\Tivoli\TSM\baclient
Answer: D

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NO.7 The dsmicf gx utility was used to install and configure a new IBM Tivoli Storage Manager V6.3 (TSM)
Server instance. During the installation process a problem occurred. The configuration process must be
restarted. Which command removes the created TSM database?
A. db2 drop TSMDB1
B. db2 list db directory
C. dsmserv removedb TSMDB1
D. dsmserv db remove TSMDB1
Answer: C

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NO.8 Where is the default location for the IBM Tivoli Integrated Portal installation logs for an AIX installation?
A. /varyTIP/tsm
B. /optmp/tsm
C. /var/tivoli/tsm
D. /opt/tivoli/tsm
Answer: C

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NO.9 During the backup of a network attached storage filer this error occurred:
The table of contents cannot be created (ANR1110E).
The backup node command was included in a server script and has the option toc=yes. What is the
reason for the error?
A. The TOC storage pool was not available
B. The correct option is TOC=if available.
C. The backup was type snapm where toc=yes is not allowed.
D. The assigned management class did not have a TOC destination.
Answer: D

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NO.10 A customer is planning to install IBM Tivoli Storage Manager V6.3 (TSM) in their environment. Which
configuration is optimal for this implementation?
A. One disk for the operating system and all TSM-related logs and disk pools.
B. One disk for the operating system, one diskfor dbdir, activelog, archivelog, and diskpool.
C. One partition for dbdir, one partition for activelog and archivelog, one partition for diskpool and one
partition for the operating system.
D. Separate disks for the operating system, dbdir. activelog, and archivelog dirs. and a number of disks
for diskpool on separate controllers.
Answer: D

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NO.11 What must be set to enable client-side deduplication with IBM Tivoli Storage Manager V6.3.?
A. The DEDUPLICATION option on the client must be set to CLIENT.
B. The DEDUPLICATION option on the client must be set to CLIENTORSERVER.
C. The primary storage pool must be a random-access DISK storage pool that is enabled for data
deduplication.
D. The primary storage pool must be a sequential-access FILE storage pool that is enabled for data
deduplication.
Answer: D

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NO.12 An IBM Tivoli Storage Manager (TSM) administrator used the Convert to Custom maintenance script in
the Admin Center selective task to edit the predefined maintenance script created after the TSM Server
installation using the wizard. What is the effect of this action?
A. The maintenance script can be modified using the wizard again.
B. The maintenance script cannot be changed using the wizard any longer.
C. The maintenance script can be scheduled only with the schedtype enhanced.
D. The maintenance script can be reconverted by the selective task Reconvert To in the Admin Center.
Answer: B

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NO.13 An administrator wants to protect the Active Directory on a Windows Server 2008 R2and so enables
snapshot support via volume shadow service. Which domain statement in dsm.opt will enable a
successful backup of the Active Directory?
A. Domain ALL-LOCAL
B. Domain ALL-LOCAL +ADS
C. Domain ALL-LOCAL -SystemState
D. Domain ALL-LOCAL -SystemObject
Answer: A

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NO.14 An administrator has been requested to:
-list all the files in a backup set on the IBM Tivoli Storage Manager client node LONDON
-create a file called LONDON_Filelist.txt. Which command completes these actions?
A. LIST BACKUPSETCONTENTS LONDON backup_set_name
B. query BACKUPCONTENTS LONDON > LONDON_Filelist.txt
C. query BACKUPSETCONTENTS LONDON backup_set_name > LONDON_Filelist.txt
D. select BACKUPSETCONTENTS LONDON backup set name send to > LONDON Filelist.txt
Answer: C

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NO.15 A tape cartridge was inserted into the library TSMLIB1 to be used as a scratch tape. Which command
will make volume VOLUMEJ a scratch volume?
A. CHECKIn LIBVolume TSMLIBl SEARCH=Bulk CHECKLabel=Barcode STATus=Scratch
B. CHECKIn LIBVolume TSMLIBl VOLUME_l SEARCH=No CHECKLabel=Barcode STATus=SCRatch
C. CHECKIn LIBVolume TSMLIBl SEARCH=Bulk VOLRange=VOLUME_l CHECKLabel=Yes
STATus=SCRatch
D. CHECKIn LIBVolume TSMLIBl SEARCH=No VOLRange=VOLUME_l CHECKLabel=Barcode
STATus=SCRatch
Answer: B

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NO.16 In a busy IBM Tivoli Storage Manager V6.3 Server environment some failed backups have gone
unnoticed for a few days. The administrator knows that they occurred around 5 days ago at 8:30 in the
morning. Which command could the administrator issue to find information about the failed backups?
A. q act se=-5 begint=08:30
B. q act begint=-5 begind=08:30
C. q act begind=-5 begint=08:30
D. q log begind=-5 begint=08:30
Answer: C

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NO.17 Which command checks the deduplication statistics for client CRSERVER after a backup or archive?
A. q actlog search=dedup
B. q node info=dedupstat
C. q actlog search=CR SERVER
D. q dedupstat node=CR SERVER
Answer: C

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NO.18 After a holiday weekend, an administrator returns to the office to find there have been problems with
IBM Tivoli Storage Manager. The activity log is checked and because there are only two days worth of
logs, the part of the log containing information about when the error occurred is no longer available.
Which command should be run to ensure that this does not happen again?
A. set logretention 5
B. set actlogretention 5
C. set actlogretention 0
D. set actlogretention 5 mgmtstyle=size
Answer: B

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NO.19 Which IBM Tivoli Storage Manager V6.3 (TSM) function can reduce the amount of data transferred for a
VMware backup?
A. Client-side deduplication
B. Server-side deduplication
C. TSM API with VMware compression
D. TSM API with VMware deduplication
Answer: A

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NO.20 A NetApp filer has multiple volumes defined; some are exported with NFS and some are exported with
CIFS. What should be considered when the backup will be done with the SnapDiff function of the
incremental backup?
A. SnapDiff works only with volumes of security style NTFS.
B. The security style of the volume is independent from the kind of backup.
C. Volumes with security style mixed can be backed up with Windows or AIX.
D. Volumes with security style UNIX must be backed up with an AIX or Linux client.
Answer: D

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