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Exam Code: HP0-A08
Exam Name: HP (NonStop H-series Operating System Support)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 69 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 Which product version information is not displayed by a successful VPROC?
A.archive type
B.archive member
C.version procedure
D.GMT binder timestamp
Answer:A

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NO.2 Which software and utilities are required in the system to use SQL/MP? (Select two.)
A.TS/MP
B.Parallel TCP/IP
C.FastSort software
D.NonStop Java Client
E.SQL conversational interface (SQLCI)
Answer:C E

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NO.3 What can SNOOP be used to do?
A.determine the value of a password
B.display the content of an SNA frame
C.modify an SQL file undo-needed flag
D.display the memory contents of a running processor
Answer:C

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NO.4 What is Scout for NonStop Servers not used to do?
A.install an SPR
B.download an SPR
C.research prerequisites
D.display information about a product version
Answer:A

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NO.5 The eGARTH tool is used to perform which task?
A.view event logs
B.process disk crashes
C.repair checksum errors
D.examine processor dumps
Answer:D

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NO.6 Which commands start INSPECT from a TACL prompt? (Select two.)
A.gtacl -p inspect
B.RUND program
C.INSPECT -START
D.RUN INSPECT or INSPECT
E.run -debug -inspect=on program
Answer:B D

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NO.7 Which TFDS option automatically reloads a failed processor?
A.RELOAD
B.AUTOLOAD
C.EnableReload
D.AUTORELOAD
Answer:B

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NO.8 Which INSPECT command resumes execution until the calling procedure is reached?
A.step in
B.step to
C.step out
D.step to caller
Answer:C

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NO.9 Which task is performed by the DIVER program?
A.reading the SYSLOG file
B.interpreting EMS event messages
C.causing a specified processor to stop executing
D.preparing a hard disk to be formatted or renamed
Answer:C

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NO.10 PTRACE displays formatted header data at the beginning of each trace data record. What information is
not included?
A.total record count
B.delta time from the previous record
C.time the trace record was captured
D.date the trace record was captured
Answer:A

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Exam Code: HP0-M25
Exam Name: HP (Assessing Web Application Security )
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Total Q&A: 105 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 What is the difference between a Login Macro and a Start Macro? Select two.
A.The Start Macro will run any time state needs to be re-established.
B.The Start Macro is used to populate the assessment with known URLs.
C.The Login Macro runs any time a page response matches its logout signature.
D.The Login Macro only runs once to gain session state at the beginning of the assessment.
E.The Start Macro is the Login Macro being forced to run once at the beginning of the assessment.
Answer:B C

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NO.2 What are the Network Authentication techniques supported by WebInspect? (Select three.)
A.NTLM
B.Kerberos
C.htaccess
D.Cybersafe
E.HTTP Basic
F.Retinal Scan
Answer:A B E

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NO.3 After completing a Crawl-Only scan and clicking on the Audit button, which scan policy will be used?
A.the policy selected by the user on-screen
B.the policy listed in the Default Scan Settings
C.the policy specified in the Application Settings
D.the policy specified in the Current Scan Settings
Answer:A

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NO.4 Which statement best describes the role of the "Web Form Values" file?
A.The WebForm Values file is part of the standard policy.
B.The WebForm Values file is generated during a scan to capture test parameters used during the scan.
C.The WebForm Values file contains parameter names and provides static values to be submitted when
testing webforms.
D.The WebForm Values file is used to establish and maintain "state" with the application by monitoring
webform authentication methods.
Answer:C

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NO.5 Which tool is used to create and edit the Web Form Values file?
A.HTML Editor
B.HTTP Editor
C.Web Form Editor
D.WebInspect Form Wizard
Answer:C

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NO.6 Which regular expression best matches the string 345-12-9876?
A.\d
B.\d*.$
C.\d{3-2-4}
D.\d{3}-\d{2}-\d{4}
Answer:D

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NO.7 In the WebInspect GUI, where can you find a full description of a discovered vulnerability?
A.within the Host info
B.within the Session info
C.within the Summary pane
D.within the Compliance Manager
Answer:B

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NO.8 Which macro option will play and then start the scan off at its last recorded session, and none of the
earlier sessions will be crawled and audited?
A.Start Macro
B.Login Macro
C.Logout Macro
D.Use macro for entry
Answer:D

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NO.9 Which policy focuses on auditing the functionality of the Web Application only?
A.Standard policy
B.Application policy
C.Web Service policy
D.Web Application policy
Answer:B

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NO.10 How do you promote vulnerabilities into defect tracking in Quality Center?
A.Use AMP integration.
B.Use the WebInspect Command Line utility.
C.Click the Quality Center icon on the toolbar.
D.Right-click the vulnerability in the Vulnerability Pane.
Answer:D

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NO.11 What is a logout signature?
A.a snapshot of the session state found when the user has lost session state
B.a regular expression used to identify those responses that indicate session state has been lost
C.the toolbar feature in Web Macro Recorder which automatically determines the macros regular
expression
D.a user-supplied keyword that will be inserted into the WebInspect scan data to indicate each response
where a logout occurred
Answer:B

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NO.12 Which tool will you use to create a filter that can help identify every instance of a 302 redirection while
browsing the web application?
A.Web Proxy
B.SQL Injector
C.HTTP Injector
D.Web Browser
Answer:A

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NO.13 Which is a valid option for Log File Purge settings under Application Settings?
A.Purge When Exit
B.By Total Scan Size
C.By Log File Number
D.Purge on SmartUpdate
Answer:C

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NO.14 By default, what are the three response codes that would halt a scan on the first request?
A.404, 407, 502
B.200, 302, 404
C.304, 302, 500
D.403, 404, 500
Answer:A

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NO.15 How do you initiate the WebInspect Command Line?
A.via the wi.exe program
B.via the WebInspect toolkit
C.via the scheduler.exe program
D.via the Advanced Assessment panel
Answer:A

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NO.16 Which statement best describes SmartUpdate?
A.SmartUpdate is the process that delivers WebInspect Messages to the bottom of the Home tab.
B.SmartUpdate is the feature that sends False Positives (FP) to the HP Support team as quality feedback.
C.SmartUpdate is a process that retrieves updates to the local vulnerability database and any
WebInspect binary updates.
D.SmartUpdate automatically omits security checks whose specified server/application type does not
match the current targets server/application fingerprint.
Answer:C

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NO.17 Which option best describes a Manual Crawl (Step Mode) scan?
A.This scan spiders the website, discovering all links and pages therein.
B.This scan forces the user to provide all of the site pages by hand via their browser while the audit
performs attacks.
C.This scan discovers links/pages while attacking the same pages, running with multiple threads. A
recursion setting allows new items discovered in the attack phase to be spidered further.
D.This scan fully discovers the site structure first, followed by a phase of attacks of the same pages. A
recursion setting allows new items discovered in the attack phase to be spidered further.
Answer:B

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NO.18 What are some uses of regular expressions in WebInspect? Select two.
A.They are used for response filtering and may be customized.
B.They are used for filtering the vulnerabilities in the Dashboard.
C.They are used for detecting the logout signature in a Login Macro.
D.They are used for defect reporting when WebInspect is linked to Quality Center.
E.They are used to group vulnerabilities in the Vulnerabilities tab in the Summary pane.
Answer:A C

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NO.19 Which statement best describes the Request Retry Count function?
A.The Request Retry Count indicates how long to wait for a response.
B.The Request Retry Count indicates how long to wait before re-requesting the same, non-responsive
page.
C.The Request Retry Count indicates how many times to attempt a request before marking it as a null
response.
D.The Request Retry Count indicates how much time WebInspect will spend on a request before marking
the requested page as a null response.
Answer:C

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NO.20 Click the Task button. Match the tools listed in the blue boxes beside the correct purpose. When
finished, click the Done button to submit your answer. Answer & Explanation Correct Answer
Explanations No more information available
Answer:

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Exam Code: HP0-S24
Exam Name: HP (Planning and Designing ProLiant Solutions for the Enterprise)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 60 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 In dual-core processor technologies, which components are duplicated within the single physical
processor chip?
A. execution core and processor cache
B. processor cache and cache controller
C. execution core, processor cache, and cache controller
D. execution core, processor cache, cache controller, and bus interface
Answer: D

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NO.2 Click Next or More to continue.
Answer:

NO.3 What is the recommended tool for configuring iLO 2 settings on new servers?
A. HP Systems Insight Manager (HP SIM)
B. ROM-Based Setup Utility (RBSU)
C. SmartStart
D. SmartStart Scripting Toolkit (SSST)
Answer: B

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NO.4 Click Next or More to continue.
Answer:

NO.5 Which features are included with the HP Modular Cooling System? (Select three.)
A. hot-swappable components
B. height range from 14 to 47U
C. support for very high density hardware
D.perforated front and back doors
E. support for up to 35kW per rack
F. loading capacity up to 1500 pounds (680 kg)
Answer: ACE

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Exam Code: HP0-J34
Exam Name: HP (Implementing MSA Storage Solutions)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 289 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 Which MSA model allows you to connect to up to 64 hosts?
A. MSA2012sa
B. MSA2000i
C. MSA2000fc
D. MSA2000sa
Answer: C

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NO.2 The HP StorageWorks MSA2000 Family Storage Management Utility is used to manage which
components?
A. drive modules and virtual disks
B. disk groups and virtual disks
C. master volumes and replication groups
D. pre-fetch cache and disks
Answer: A

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NO.3 What are valid hardware capabilities of the MSA2000? (Select two.)
A. snapshots on MSA2000fc only
B. data replication between arrays
C. clones on any MSA2000
D. SAS backend bus
E. tri-port SATA drives for high availability
Answer: CD

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NO.4 Which statement is true about the MSA Storage Management Utility?
A. It is only located on the master MSA controller module.
B. It resides on any server connected to the SAN.
C. It resides on the SAN management server.
D. It is located on either of the MSA controller modules.
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which data protection capabilities does the MSA2012i array provide? (Select two.)
A. up to 255 snapshots
B. up to 255 volume copies
C. 128 volume copies
D. 128 snapshots
E. 64 volume copies
F. 64 snapshots
Answer: CF

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NO.6 In addition to using the WBI or CLI, how can you set the date and time on an MSA2324fc G2 solution?
A. by issuing the set controller-ntp enabled command through CLI
B. b y issuing the set controller-time command through CLI
C. automatically as soon as the first host is connected
D. b y configuring the system to use Network Time Protocol (NTP)
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which key benefits does the MSA2012fc provide? (Select two.)
A. clone and snapshot capability
B. ability to mix disk drives of different sizes in a virtual RAID set without capacity loss
C. flexible drive types and sizes
D. controller-based replication capability
E. support for dual-ported SATA disk drives
Answer: AC

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NO.8 Several different methods are used to protect data. One method uses snapshots. What is an accurate
description of a snapshot?
A. source independent physical image of a volume
B. logical copy of a volume on another controller
C. remote copy of a volume on another storage array
D. source dependent logical image of a volume
Answer: D

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NO.9 Which array-head chassis for the MSA2000fc G2 has 24 drive bays?
A. large form factor chassis
B. medium form factor chassis
C. s mall form factor chassis
D. high density form factor chassis
Answer: C

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NO.10 A customer has an MSA2324fc with dual controllers. What is required when adding an MSA70 drive
enclosure to this configuration?
A. dual I/O modules on MSA controllers
B. a dual domain I/O module option
C. two additional miniSAS to miniSAS cables
D. a minimum of 16 dual-ported SAS drives
Answer: B

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Exam Code: HP0-Y26
Exam Name: HP (Building a Complete HP ProCurve Mobility Solution)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 73 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 what is the effect of the following command , entered at the CLI of an Hp ProCurve Switches 5412zl?
5412zl(ospf)#redistribute rip
A. The router will assume the role of ASBR
B. The router will become eligible for election as DR
C. The router will assume the role of ABR
D. The router will summarize RIP routes in OSPF LSAs
Answer: A

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NO.2 Click the Exhibit button
What is the role of the HP ProCurve Switch 3500yl in the OSPF routing domain?
A. ABR in areas 5 and 0
B. ASBR in areas 5 and 0
C. internal router in area 5
D. internal router in area 0
Answer: A

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NO.3 You must use the web management interface of an HP MSM710 Controller to perform a manual
upgrade of the controller s software. In the management interface . which location must be specified as
the source for the software file?
A. TFTP server
B. your workstation
C. controller auxilary port
D. your FTP server
Answer: B

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NO.4 You have enable Dynamic ARP Protection on an HP ProCurve 5406zl switch.When is it necessary to
define IP-to MAC address bindings?
A. when you must lock down the switch s IP addresses to its base MAC address
B. when you must specify clients connected to untrusted ports
C. when you must identify devices that do not use DHCP,but have a static IP address assigned.
D. when you must protect uplink ports that connect to other swithes that do not support Dynamic ARP
Protection.
E. when you must provide sevurity to ports where different clients may connect at different times
Answer: C

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NO.5 You must configure an HP ProCurve Switch 8212zl to be the Backup router for a VRID associated with
VLAN 10. What must be true of the virtual IP address for the VRID on this router?
A. It must be an address assigned to a muti-netted interface
B. It must be an address that is not assigned to any interface on either router.
C. It must match the Backup router s address for the VLAN 10 interface.
D. It must match the Owner router s address for the VLAN 10 interface
Answer: D

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NO.6 You have verified that an HP ProCurve Switch 3500yl is correctly configured for PIM dense mode. The
witch s IGMP table shows active hosts that are memebers of multicast group 239.193.22.22. The muticast
is in progress, and all hosts are reciving the content ,However, the muticast group does not appear in the
witch s PIM route table.
What does this indicate about the 239.193.22.22 muticast group?
A. The switch is forwarding the muticast at Layer2.
B. Other muticast routers are configured for PIM sparse.
C. The server and IGMP hosts are in different VLANs.
D. The switch is Querier for the group.
Answer: A

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NO.7 On an HP ProCurve switch 8212zl, which feature must be enabled before you can enable VRRP?
A. IP routing
B. a dynamic routing protocol
C. MSTP
D. IP muticast
Answer: A

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NO.8 A customer requires high levels of redundancy and availability for a critical business network that uses
two HP ProCurve 8212zl switches in the core. What is a potential advantage of deploying the VRRP on
thest switches?
A. It will enable the switches to learn redudant paths to remote networks
B. It will enable the switches to provide redundant default gateways to clicents.
C. It will enable the configuration of redundant gateways on VRRP-aware clients
D. It will enable the switches to provide redundant links to the distribution layer.
Answer: B

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NO.9 You must configure an Hp ProCurve switch 8212zl to be the Owner of a VRID associated with VLAN 10.
What must e true of the virtual IP address for the VRID?
A. It must be an address on a muti-ntted interface
B. It must match the router s address for the VLAN 10 interface
C. It must match the address assigned to VLAN 10 on the Backup router.
D. It must use a classful network mask
Answer: B

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NO.10 You must design an MSTP solution for a customer network that uses HP ProCurve 5412zl switches in
the core and 3500yl switches at the edge. All switches will belong to single MST region. How can you
determine how may MST instances will be required to ensure that all links are in a forwarding state for at
least one VLAN?
A. Determine how many switches have identical VLAN configurations
B. Count the nubmer of redundant paths between the core and one edge switch.
C. Count the switches at the network edge
D. Determine the total number of VLANs configured on the switches.
Answer: B

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Exam Code: HP0-J35
Exam Name: HP (HP Data Protector software Application Integration-Windows)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 55 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 Which filesystem is supported for the backup of VSS writers?
A. NTFS
B. DFSR
C. NDMP
D. CIFS
Answer: A

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NO.2 What is the primary function of an application integration agent?
A. offline backup
B. synthetic full backup
C. hot database backup
D. split mirror backup
Answer: C

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NO.3 What should be considered when SAP/R3 is backed up using backint?
A. BRBACKUP cannot be used to back up SAP/R3.
B. It is impossible to perform incremental backups.
C. The backup objects must be manually propagated to the internal database.
D. Hot database backup cannot be performed on the data files.
Answer: B

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NO.4 What is the maximum number of devices used in a backup session for Microsoft Exchange?
A. one for the complete backup specification
B. equal to the number of databases within a storage group
C. equal to the number of storage groups
D. unlimited, as the storage group can be sub-divided into many objects
Answer: C

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NO.5 How do you back up Microsoft Exchange databases within a storage group?
A. sequentially
B. oldest files first
C. in parallel
D. longest filenames first
Answer: A

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Exam Code: Hp2-B51
Exam Name: HP (Selling HP Document Solutions)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 25 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 What do IT departments need to do to gain support for new projects?
A. ensure the project comes in on budget
B. satisfy the issues of implementation, roll out, and support
C. satisfy the issues raised by finance and purchasing departments
D. ensure the project meets overall business strategy and identify the beneficiaries
Answer: D

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NO.2 What can IT departments provide to justify spending on new projects.?
A. ROI analysis
B. SAP analysis
C. ERP analysis
D. ROA analysis
Answer: A

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NO.3 What are the benefits of an HP document solution sale to both you and your customer?
A. increased sales of MFPs and greater customer satisfaction
B. increased sales of printers and a great deal for the customer
C. higher revenue and sales margins, and the opportunity to change the customer's work methods to
increase efficiency and reduce costs
D. higher sales volume and overheads, and the opportunity to change the customer's work methods to
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Answer: C

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Exam Code: Hp2-H05
Exam Name: HP (Design & Implementation of HP Thin Client Solutions)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 102 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 To which product line classification in HP thin client portfolio does the HP 2533t model
belong?
A. Mobile
B. Flexible
C. Essential
D. Mainstream
Answer: A

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NO.2 A medium-sized bank has upgraded to the most recent Citrix XenApp environment. The
have asked you to provide thin client access devices. In addition to standard ICA access,
they need support for their local printers and would like to use XenApp's Web Interface 5.0
feature.
Which HP thin client models should you suggest as the best cost-effective option for them?
(Select two)
A. 2533t
B. 6720t
C. t5145
D. t5540
E. t5630
Answer: D,E

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NO.3 You want to configure your HP thin clients to boot from the network/ATA Flash/USB. What is the
correct command to use?
A. bootorder.exe -wNH
B. bootorder.exe -wHU
C. bootorder.exe -oNHU
D. bootorder.exe -oUNH
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which Virtual Desktop Infrastructure (VDI) solutions are recognized by HP (Select two)
A. HP Blade PC
B. VmWare View
C. Citrix XenApp
D. HP Image Manager
E. Citrix XenDesktop
Answer: B,E

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NO.5 Which HP thin client operating system includes the features listed below?
Case Study Title (Case Study):
Basic connectivity: ICA/RDP/X-term
Software extensibility: Modest - some modules can be download from HP
Peripheral support: Wide
Local browser: Firefox
Terminal emulation: TeemTalk
A. HP ThinPro
B. HP ThinConnect
C. MS Windows XPe
D. MX Windows CE
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which operation system of HP thin clients fully implements the features of the HP Session
Allocation Manager (SAM) broker?
A. HP ThinConnect
B. MS Windows CE
C. MS Windows XPe
D. MS Windows Vista
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which HP Remote Client Solution is best for a task-oriented user?
A. HP Blade Workstation
B. Server Based Computing
C. HP Virtual Desktop Infrastructure
D. Hp Blade PC
Answer: B

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NO.8 The HP Compaq Thin Client Boot Order Change Tool enables you to change the boot order of a
thin client remotely. What is the correct Linux command to set the boot order as USB/
Flash/Network?
A. ./hpbootorder -uhn
B. ./hpbootorder -oufn
C. hpbootorder.exe -uhn
D. hpbootorder.exe -oufn
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which thin client operating systems should you recommend to a customer who requires
high software extensibility? (Select two)
A. HP ThinPro
B. MS Windows XPe
C. HP ThinConnect
D. HP ThinPro Plus
E. MS Windows CE
Answer: B,D

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NO.10 Name the tool that:
-supports HP thin clients
-is included with every HP thin client
-does not require a license
-provides easy-to-use, scalable image deployment and recovery for SMB environments
A. HP ThinState
B. HP Image manager
C. HP Systems Insight Manager (HP SIM)
D. HP Client Automation (HPCA)
Answer: A

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NO.11 What are the characteristic of a Knowledge Worker user group (Select two)
A. richer graphical applications
B. many simultaneous user logins
C. multiple display support requirements
D. multiple business or productivity applications open simultaneously
E. fewer application types
Answer: B,D

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NO.12 Which HP thin client has stateless mode capability?
A. t5545 (HP ThinPro)
B. t5540 (MS Windows CE)
C. t5730 (MS Windows XPe)
D. t5145 (HP ThinConnect)
Answer: D

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NO.13 What is the mail-in warranty turnaround time for HP thin clients sent to HP for repair?
A. 8 hours
B. 16 hours
C. 24 hours
D. 48 hours
Answer: D

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NO.14 Your customer needs to connect to and communicate with applications on mainframes and
midrange systems running proprietary operating systems, UNIX, and Linux.
Which HP thin client operating systems provide this ability through their support of the
Neoware TeemTalk terminal emulation? (Select three)
A. HP-UX 11i
B. HP ThinPro
C. MS Windows Vista
D. HP ThinConnect
E. MS Windows CE
F. Windows XPe
Answer: B,E,F

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NO.15 Your customer requires the lowest-cost thin client solution with only basic connectivity,
integrated connection brokers, no browser or terminal emulation support, and the most
essential peripheral support.
Which thin client operating system should you recommend?
A. HP ThinPro
B. HP ThinConnect
C. MS Windows XPe
D. MS Windows CE
Answer: B

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NO.16 Which models belong to the Flexible product line in HP thin client portfolio (Select two)
A. 6720t
B. t5730
C. t5145
D. t5630
E. t5540
Answer: B,D

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NO.17 Which protocols does HP support to access HP blade workstations remotely (Select two)
A. ICA
B. VNC
C. RDC
D. RGS
E. RDP
Answer: D,E

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NO.18 Which remote protocol has a client implementation on all major operating systems?
A. HP RGS
B. Citrix ICA
C. MS RDP
D. X Display Manager Control Protocol
Answer: B

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NO.19 Which features are exclusively available with the Windows Xpe operating system and not with the
other operating systems supported on the HP thin clients? (Select two)
A. media player
B. Smart Card support
C. Enhanced Write Filter (EWF)
D. Symantec Endpoint Protection
E. locked-down configuration and accounts
Answer: C,D

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NO.20 What is the role of a connection broker?
A. provides encryption between client and resources
B. determines resource type allocation based on user identity
C. manages golden images and their distribution to compute resources
D. provides a connection between the server and the computer resources
Answer: D

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Exam Code: HP2-Q03
Exam Name: HP (Selling HP Integrity Server Solutions)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 60 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 Which statement is true of today's IT infrastructure? (Select two.)
A. Underutilized server capacity is no longer an issue.
B. Cost of operations is now the lowest portion of the IT budget.
C. The IT environment has become complex and difficult to maintain.
D. Energy needs for power and cooling are no longer concerns of the CIO.
E. There is a struggle to meet service level agreements for critical workloads.
Answer: C,E

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NO.2 Which Integrity servers benefit from the higher performance and greater availability of the HP sx2000
chipset? (Select two.)
A. HP Integrity rx2660
B. HP Integrity rx6600
C. HP Integrity rx8640
D. HP Integrity rx3600
E. HP Integrity Superdome
Answer: C,E

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NO.3 Which messaging statement describes what HP Integrity servers deliver?
A. HP Integrity servers simply deliver more computing power.
B. HP Integrity servers always deliver availability, scalability, and virtualization.
C. HP Integrity servers deliver predictable, standards-based IT staff resources.
D. HP Integrity servers deliver maximum power using maximum resources.
Answer: B

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NO.4 How many processor cores are the maximum supported in the high-end HP Integrity Superdome
servers?
A. 32
B. 64
C. 128
D. 256
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which HP Integrity servers use the zx2 chipset and provide double chip spare memory? (Select two.)
A. rx2660
B. rx3600
C. rx7640
D. rx6600
E. rx8640
Answer: A,B

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NO.6 Which statement is true about the roadmap for the HP Integrity server family?
A. It is tied closely to the roadmap for PA-RISC processors.
B. It is tied closely to the roadmap for the Intel Itanium processor.
C. It is tied to projected increases in power and cooling availability.
D. It is tied to the trend towards higher bandwidth single-core processors.
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which is a benefit to HP Integrity server customers?
A. an increase in cable management complexity
B. energy efficiency, with up to 10% improvement
C. the highest level of availability for every application
D. simplicity and efficiency that results in lower TCO
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which HP Utility Pricing Solution is appropriate for customers who want to pay for IT assets based upon
actual usage and do less capacity planning?
A. Sale lease-back
B. Metered capacity
C. Managed capacity
D. Short-term finance
Answer: B

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Exam Code: HP2-Z05
Exam Name: HP (Selling the HP ProCurve Portfolio)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 40 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 What enables you to configure HP ProCurve products and create offers and quotations based on those
configurations?
A. HPProCurve Network Design Center
B. HPProCurve Configurator
C. HPProCurve Product Portfolio poster
D. HPProCurve Networking Quick Reference Guide
Answer: B

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NO.2 What is a VLAN?
A. a LAN that does not use wires and is enabled by wireless technology
B. a large, geographically dispersed network consisting of two or more LANs
C. a network that allows secure private data to be sent through a public network
D. a logical division within a physical network that divides devices into separate broadcast
domains
Answer: D

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NO.3 What has HP ProCurve designed in several of its high-speed switches to consolidate the function of
many individual chips, including software, onto a single chip?
A. VoIP
B. ASIC
C. IPS
D. PoE
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which OSI Layer functionality enables a switch to route traffic?
A. Network Layer (Layer 3)
B. Physical Layer (Layer 1)
C. Data Link Layer (Layer 2)
D. Transport Layer (Layer 4}
Answer: A

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NO.5 A company's private network is divided into several subnets. Which devices can allow traffic to flow
between the subnets? (Select two.)
A. router
B. hub
C. standalone access point
D. Layer 2 switch
E. Layer 3 switch
Answer: A,E

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Exam Code: HP3-042
Exam Name: HP (HP LaserJet 5200 Series Printers Service and Support)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 30 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 Which of the following are customer self-repair parts? Select THREE.
A. tray 1 pickup roller
B. formatter
C. memory DIMMs
D. main fan duct
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.2 What printer drivers are included on the inbox CD for the HP LaserJet 5200 series printer.? Select
THREE.
A. Linux
B. PCL 5e
C. PostScript 3
D. PCL 6
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.3 When removing/replacing the assembly, for which internal assembly must you first remove the cartridge
door unit?
A. control panel assembly
B. laser/scanner assembly
C. face down delivery unit
D. cassette-paper pickup unit
Answer: B

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NO.4 The HP LaserJet 5200L comes with which two of the following? Select TWO.
A. 500-sheet input tray
B. one open DIMM slot
C. duplex unit
D. hi-speed USB 2.0 port
Answer: B

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NO.5 How many motors do HP LaserJet 5200 series printers contain?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: D

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